USCG Safety Questions: Master's License
1: Your vessel is on an even keel. The MT1 of your vessel is
1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be loaded in
number 4 hold which is 100 feet abaft the tipping center, if
she is to have a 2 foot drag?
A: 90 tons
B: 100 tons
C: 130 tons
D: 240 tons
2: An airplane wants a vessel to change course and proceed
towards a vessel in distress. The actions of the aircraft
to convey this message will NOT include _______________.
A: circling the vessel at least once
B: heading in the direction of the distress location
C: flashing the navigation lights on and off
D: crossing ahead and rocking the wings
3: To turn over an inflatable life raft that is upside down,
you should pull on the _____________.
A: canopy
B: manropes
C: sea painter
D: righting strap
4: A green signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about
300 feet above the water, indicates that a submarine _____.
A: has fired a torpedo during a drill
B: will be coming to the surface
C: is on the bottom in distress
D: is in distress and will try to surface
5: Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of
_________.
A: sewage
B: the galley trash can
C: an oily mixture of one part per million
D: All of the above
6: Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire
extinguishing systems shall be kept on board __________.
A: for 1 year
B: for 2 years
C: until the next Coast Guard inspection
D: until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires
7: You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1%
to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no
one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration
is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable
percentage of vapors for men to enter?
A: .15%
B: .85%
C: 1.05%
D: 7.00%
8: You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How
many chest compressions and how many inflations should you
administer in each sequence?
A: 5 compressions then 1 inflation
B: 15 compressions then 2 inflations
C: 20 compressions then 3 inflations
D: 30 compressions then 4 inflations
9: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at
Sea contain the requirements for ________________________.
A: signals that must be sounded when being towed in restricted
visibility
B: minimum hawser lengths when being towed
C: lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys
D: mooring procedures for support vessels when transferring
cargo
10: What is the definition of transverse metacenter?
A: The distance between the actual center of gravity and the
maximum center of gravity that will still allow a positive
stability.
B: The point to which G may rise and still permit the vessel to
possess positive stability.
C: The sum of the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity.
D: The transverse shift of the center of buoyancy as a vessel
rolls.
11: A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?
A: On their side if unconscious
B: Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head
C: Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level
D: Arms above their head
12: The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to
_____.
A: allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
B: prevent outside air from entering the tank
C: provide more discharge pressure
D: comply with pollution regulations
13: If your life raft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you
should FIRST _________________.
A: cut the line to the sea anchor
B: paddle away from the fire
C: splash water over the liferaft to cool it
D: get out of the raft and swim to safety
14: A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute,
about 300 feet above the water, would indicate that a
submarine ___________.
A: has fired a torpedo during a drill
B: is about to rise to periscope depth
C: is on the bottom in distress
D: is disabled and unable to surface
15: In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical
time during bunkering is when _______________.
A: you first start to receive fuel
B: hoses are being blown down
C: final topping off is occurring
D: hoses are being disconnected
17: The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is _____.
A: incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon
vapor content makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower
Flammable Level)
B: capable of supporting combustion
C: in a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur
naturally on a regular basis
D: incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon
vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper
Flammable Limit)
18: When administering mouth to mouth resuscitation to an adult,
you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per
minute?
19: The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the
radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least a
____________________.
A: mate's license
B: restricted radiotelephone operator permit
C: second-class radio operator's license
D: seaman's document
20: If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises 1.7
feet, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of
inclination will _____________________.
A: decrease
B: increase
C: remain unchanged
D: be changed by the amount of GG' x cosine of the angle
21: Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following
emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on a fishing
vessel EXCEPT ________.
A: minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding
B: fire on board
C: rescuing an individual from the water
D: emergency towing
22: An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to
_________.
A: aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
B: increase the rate of discharge of cargo
C: force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to
the outside atmosphere
D: lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion
nearly impossible
23: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an
inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon
functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should
you take?
A: Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft
container down.
B: Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as
it goes down.
C: Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft
to inflate and open the container.
D: Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with
the hand pump.
24: Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in
compliance with the International Rules of the Road?
25: You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another
country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The Certificate of Inspection is prima facie evidence of
compliance with MARPOL 73/78.
B: The IOPP Certificate is valid for 4 years.
C: An IOPP Certificate is invalid if the ship carries cargoes
outside the classes authorized thereon.
D: AN IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for
certification.
26: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square
feet. What would fulfill the requirements for fire
protection?
A: One B-I extinguisher
B: One B-II extinguisher
C: One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
D: One B-V extinguisher
27: The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is _____.
A: incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon
content is below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit)
B: capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon
content is above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)
C: capable of supporting a fire once started
D: not safe for ballasting
28: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during
mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's
nostrils and _____________.
A: cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
B: keeping the head elevated
C: applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
D: holding the jaw down firmly
29: In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the
operator must FIRST __________.
A: invert the CO2 extinguisher
B: squeeze the two trigger handles together
C: remove the locking pin
D: open the discharge valve
30: Transverse stability calculations require the use of _____.
A: hog or sag calculations or tables
B: hydrostatic curves
C: general arrangement plans
D: cross-sectional views of the vessel
31: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT
_________.
A: electricity
B: fuel
C: oxygen
D: heat
32: Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or
after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert gas system if
the tonnage is more than _______________.
A: 100,000 DWT (long tons)
B: 100,000 DWT (metric tons)
C: 50,000 DWT (long tons)
D: 50,000 DWT (metric tons)
33: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats
due to their ________.
A: shape
B: shallow draft
C: large sail area
D: All of the above
34: Which single-letter sound signal may only be made in
compliance with the Rules of the Road?
A: D
B: E
C: S
D: All of the above
35: Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
A: It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
B: It is not covered by the pollution laws.
C: It does little harm to marine life.
D: It will sink more rapidly than crude oil.
36: The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers
required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker
exit is ________.
A: one A-I
B: two A-IIs
C: one B-II
D: one C-II
37: What is the generally accepted method of determining whether
the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich,
or too lean to support combustion?
A: Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been
taken from the tank.
B: Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
C: Enter the tank with a teledyne oxygen analyzer.
D: Use an MSA, Davis, or equivalent explosimeter.
38: When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during
CPR, the sternum should be depressed about _____________.
A: 1/2 inch or less
B: 1/2 to 1 inch
C: 1 to 1-1/2 inches
D: 1-1/2 to 2 inches
39: A flame screen __________.
A: permits the passage of vapor but not of flame
B: prevents the passage of flammable vapors
C: prevents inert gas from leaving a tank
D: permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank
40: Regardless of local requirements/regulations, when in a
U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to ___________.
A: Environmental Protection Agency
B: Minerals Management Service
C: National Response Center (USCG)
D: All of the Above
41: Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room
fire, you must __________.
A: secure the engine room ventilation
B: secure the machinery in the engine room
C: evacuate all engine room personnel
D: All of the above
42: Using an inert gas system on a tank vessel has which
advantage(s)?
A: Provides for faster loading
B: Lowers oxygen content in the tank
C: Provides better fuel economy
D: All of the above
43: If an inflatable life raft is overturned, it may be righted
by ________.
A: filling the stabilizers on one side with water
B: releasing the CO2 cylinder
C: pushing up from under one end
D: standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps
on the underside of the raft
44: The spread of fire is prevented by _____________.
A: heating surfaces adjacent to the fire
B: removing combustibles from the endangered area
C: increasing the oxygen supply
D: All of the above
45: Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?
A: They usually disappear quickly.
B: They usually stay in a small area.
C: They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be
cumulative.
D: A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the area.
46: The required number and type of hand portable fire
extinguishers to be carried in the vicinity of the radio
room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is
one ______.
A: B-I
B: B-II
C: C-I
D: C-II
47: What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?
A: Combustible gas indicator
B: Vapor indicator
C: Atmosphere analyzer kit
D: None of the above
48: You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where
on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
A: Lower half of the sternum
B: Tip of the sternum
C: Top half of the sternum
D: Left chest over the heart
49: You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.
A: use a portable foam extinguisher
B: use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
C: use a portable CO2 extinguisher
D: determine the cause of the fire
50: What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled
tanker?
A: Bending moments
B: Initial stability
C: Draft
D: Trim
51: On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required
part of the fireman's outfit?
A: Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached
B: Combustible gas indicator
C: Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves
D: Flame safety lamp
52: Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank
vessels?
A: Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems.
B: The gas is helium.
C: Using the system accelerates the rusting of the tanks.
D: All of the above
53: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can
right it by _________________.
A: pushing up on one side
B: standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and
throwing your weight backwards
C: getting at least three or four men to push down on the side
containing the CO2 cylinder
D: doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy
supports inflate
54: On surface type offshore drilling units, each lifeboat and
life raft must be capable of being launched to the water at
the minimum operating draft when the unit has an adverse
trim up to ___________.
A: 20²
B: 15²
C: 10²
D: 5²
55: Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.
A: equipment failure
B: human error
C: major casualties
D: unforeseeable circumstances
56: The required number and type of hand portable fire
extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels is _________.
A: one A-I
B: one B-I
C: one C-I
D: none required
57: The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form
an explosive mixture is called the ______________.
A: auto-ignition point
B: flash point
C: lower explosive limit (LEL)
D: threshold limit value (TLV)
58: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration
should be done _______________.
A: without losing the rhythm of respiration
B: only with the help of two other people
C: by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
D: at ten-minute intervals
59: Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each
self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?
A: Emergency gear locker
B: Bridge or pilothouse area
C: Where they can be readily found
D: The same location as the equipment it reactivates
60: Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates
that the vessel _____.
A: has offcenter weights
B: is taking on water
C: has a greater draft forward than aft
D: has poor stability
61: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. The
barge is NOT gas free. Regulations say that the cargo tank
hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge
may remain open without flame screens _______________.
A: without restriction
B: only while in areas of good weather
C: when under the supervision of a senior crew member on duty
D: only when the barge is empty
62: The deck water seal of the inert gas system ______________.
A: cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the
cargo tanks
B: acts as an emergency shutdown when inlet pressures exceed
the safe working pressure
C: prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into
nonhazardous areas
D: relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
63: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that
has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming
from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of
this?
A: The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker
lights on the canopy.
B: The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the
tubes fully inflated.
C: A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of
CO2.
D: Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon
stop.
64: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the amount of liquid loading required in the
double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 338 tons
B: 309 tons
C: 281 tons
D: 263 tons
65: The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine
jacket water cooling system is that it ________________.
A: accelerates errosion
B: reduces the effectiveness of chromate additives
C: can form pockets of high chemical concentrates
D: accelerates formation of sludge deposits
66: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square
feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire
protection?
A: One B-I extinguisher
B: One B-II extinguisher
C: One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
D: One B-V extinguisher
67: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is
________.
A: 0% to 1%
B: 1% to 10%
C: 10% to 15%
D: 12% to 20%
68: The MOST important element in administering CPR is ________.
A: having the proper equipment for the process
B: starting the treatment quickly
C: administering of oxygen
D: treating for traumatic shock
69: Fire hose couplings _________________.
A: are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
B: should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths
C: are specially hardened to prevent crushing
D: should be greased frequently
70: What represents the center of gravity?
71: Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with
_____________.
A: the name of the vessel on which it is located
B: the date that it was installed
C: the names of the individuals qualified to use it
D: an identification number
72: To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above
the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.
A: pull the hook release handle
B: pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
C: use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer
D: pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer
73: A life raft which has inflated bottom-up on the water
___________.
A: should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide
cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards
B: should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the
righting straps, and leaning backwards
C: will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate
D: must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will
right itself
74: Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are ______________.
A: prohibited
B: permitted for draining fuel from lines
C: permitted for drawing fuel samples
D: permitted for bleeding air from lines
75: If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival
craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the
hook release?
A: Immediately upon launching
B: One to three feet before first wave contact
C: Upon first wave contact
D: Only when waterborne
76: The required number and type of hand portable fire
extinguishers required for a galley having an area of 3,500
square feet is ____________.
A: one B-II
B: one C-II
C: two B-II's or C-II's
D: two A-II's or B-II's
77: Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is ______________.
A: 16%
B: 18%
C: 21%
D: 25%
78: Before CPR is started, you should _____________.
A: establish an open airway
B: treat any bleeding wounds
C: insure the victim is conscious
D: make the victim comfortable
79: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire
extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be
_________.
A: labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
B: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more
than 25%
C: replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
D: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more
than 15%
80: What represents the metacentric height?
81: Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as
a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition
temperature?
A: CO2
B: Water stream
C: Water spray
D: Foam
82: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable
dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed
__________.
A: to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
B: at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
C: over the top of the fire
D: at the main body of the fire
83: If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk,
you should ________.
A: go in a different direction in search of land
B: spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft
finding you
C: reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as
possible into as few rafts as possible
D: tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
84: After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be _____.
A: put back in service if some C02 remains
B: hydrostatically tested
C: retagged
D: recharged
85: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should ____.
A: shut off all electrical power
B: remove combustibles from direct exposure
C: cool the bulkhead around the fire
D: close all openings to the area
86: On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are
no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply
with regulations, you _____________________.
A: need not be concerned since no portable extinguishers are
required in the pumproom
B: should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the
vicinity of the exit
C: should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the
lower pumproom
D: may substitute sand for the required extinguishers
87: Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a
compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free?
A: A three-cell flashlight
B: An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp
C: A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp
D: None of the above
88: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you
blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting
into the lungs. What should you do?
A: Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
B: Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.
C: Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow
out any obstruction.
D: Re-tip the head and try again.
89: To determine what navigation lights and dayshapes must be
displayed on mobile offshore drilling units under tow,
you should check the _____.
A: American Bureau of Shipping classification rules
B: International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea
C: Safety of Life at Sea Convention
D: Minerals Management Service rules
90: Refer to illustration D001SA. Which represents the righting
arm?
A: GM
B: GZ
C: BM
D: Angle MGZ
91: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a
shipboard fire by ____________.
A: removing the fuel
B: interrupting the chain reaction
C: removing the oxygen
D: removing the heat
92: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by
8'D. The vessel's displacement in fresh water is 864 tons
and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the
reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
A: .32 foot
B: .80 foot
C: .96 foot
D: 1.12 feet
93: If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while
far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should
________.
A: separate from each other as this will increase the chances
of being rescued
B: get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to
the vessel
C: immediately head for the nearest land
D: remain together in the area because rescuers will start
searching at the vessel's last known position
94: If you desired to communicate with another station that your
navigation lights were not functioning, you would send
_______________.
A: PB
B: PD1
C: MJ
D: LN1
95: A spark arrestor _____.
A: keeps sparks from falling into an open tank
B: secures covers on ullage openings
C: prevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust
system
D: grounds static electricity
96: A B-III foam extinguisher contains ___________________.
A: 2-1/2 gallons of foam
B: 8 gallons of foam
C: 10 gallons of foam
D: 12 gallons of foam
97: The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a
compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is
___________________.
A: battery fed
B: self-contained
C: approved explosion proof
D: All of the above
98: Two people are administering CPR to a victim. How many
times per minute should the chest be compressed?
99: Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to
the discharge into the marine environment of ______________.
A: oil
B: garbage
C: noxious liquid substances
D: None of the above
100: When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between
the line of force through B and the line of force through G
is called the _____.
A: metacentric height
B: righting arm
C: righting moment
D: metacentric radius
101: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40 feet
long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height
is ___________________.
A: 1.1 feet
B: 1.2 feet
C: 1.3 feet
D: 1.5 feet
102: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part
of your vessel. If possible, you should __________________.
A: put the vessel's stern into the wind
B: abandon ship to windward
C: call for assistance
D: keep going at half speed
103: You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the
raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise
coming from a safety valve. You should _____.
A: not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of
time
B: plug the safety valve
C: unscrew the deflation plugs
D: remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
104: In the International Code of Signals, the code signal
meaning "I require immediate assistance" is _________.
105: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at
Sea contain the requirements for ____________________.
A: lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys
B: the display of load line markings
C: minimum horsepower for tugs involved in rig moves
D: lighting of mobile offshore drilling units being towed
106: A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of ________.
A: 3 gallons of foam
B: 20 pounds of CO2
C: 10 pounds of dry chemical
D: All of the above
107: What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?
A: For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate
B: For the instant that it is made
C: Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are
reopened
D: Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor
content in the space
108: Antiseptics are used principally to ___________.
A: speed healing
B: prevent infection
C: reduce inflammation
D: increase blood circulation
109: Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350
feet long and has a beam of 55 feet. You have timed it's
full rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your
vessel's approximate GM?
A: 1.18 feet
B: 1.83 feet
C: 2.60 feet
D: 3.36 feet
110: A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's
center of gravity will ___________________.
A: increase reserve buoyancy
B: decrease the righting moments
C: decrease KG
D: increase KM
111: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be
closed to prevent the spread of fire by ___________.
A: convection
B: conduction
C: radiation
D: ventilation
112: Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas.
You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by ____________.
A: rigging a sea anchor
B: constantly shifting the rudder
C: moving all personnel forward and low
D: moving all personnel aft
113: You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has
inflated. You should _____.
A: quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
B: check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas
are rough
C: check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the
initial opening
D: not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to
escape
114: If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code
should you send?
116: What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher?
A: A 2-1/2 gallon soda acid and water
B: A 1-1/4 gallon foam
C: A 2-1/2 gallon foam
D: A 20 pound dry chemical
117: Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample
into the instrument ______________________________.
A: over an electrically heated platinum filament
B: where it is mixed with nitrogen
C: where it is ignited by a sparking device
D: where its specific gravity is measured
118: A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY _____.
A: with puncture wounds
B: when all other means have failed
C: when the victim is unconscious
D: to prevent bleeding from minor wounds
119: What would be considered a vessel under the International
Rules of the Road?
A: A jack-up rig under tow
B: A semisubmersible drilling rig under tow
C: A semisubmersible drilling rig drifting after breaking
a tow line
D: All of the above
120: The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may
rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability
is called the ___________.
A: metacentric point
B: metacenter
C: metacentric radius
D: tipping center
121: Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529
feet long and has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your
full charge rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your
vessel's approximate GM?
A: 1.25 feet
B: 1.56 feet
C: 1.98 feet
D: 2.43 feet
122: A negative metacentric height _____________.
A: will always cause a vessel to capsize
B: should always be immediately corrected
C: always results from off-center weights
D: All of the above are correct
123: If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should
________.
A: remain in the immediate vicinity
B: head for the nearest land
C: head for the closest sea-lanes
D: vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the
decision
124: You wish to communicate information that the swell in
your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast.
This swell, as defined in the code, would be described as
____________.
A: rough
B: moderate
C: high
D: confused
125: Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS _____.
A: reduce reserve buoyancy
B: increase righting moments
C: increase GM
D: All of the above
126: Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type
B-III extinguisher?
A: 12 gallon soda acid
B: 20 gallon foam
C: 30 pound carbon dioxide
D: 20 pound dry chemical
127: Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum
products, the tank must be certified by ___________________.
A: the Coast Guard
B: the American Bureau of Shipping
C: the shipyard fire department
D: a certified marine chemist
128: A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that
is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an
alternative to suturing to close the wound?
A: Wrap a tight bandage around the wound.
B: Apply a compression bandage.
C: Use temporary stitches of sail twine.
D: Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing.
129: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with
____________.
A: a righting line
B: red hand flares
C: pendants
D: drinking water
130: When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships,
the vessel will heel outwards if __________________________.
A: the vessel has very little draft
B: G is above the center of lateral resistance
C: G is below the center of lateral resistance
D: the vessel is deeply laden
131: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this
draft, the displacement is 8,000 tons. The length of the
vessel is 475 ft., beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. Calculate KM.
(See P-value, K-value table in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book)
A: 18.8 feet
B: 20.9 feet
C: 22.7 feet
D: 32.0 feet
132: The most serious effect of air trapped in a diesel engine
jacket water cooling system is that it ______________.
A: causes colloid suspension in the cooling water
B: reduces the capability of the lubrication system
C: can form pockets which block the flow of coolant through
the system
D: leads to the scuffing of cylinder walls
133: You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft.
How much water per day should you permit each occupant
to drink after the first 24 hours?
A: 1 can
B: 1 pint
C: 1 quart
D: 1 gallon
134: What is the International Code signal for a decimal point
between figures using flashing light?
A: AAA
B: TTTT
C: EEEEE
D: AS
135: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the
navigable waters of the U.S. is FALSE?
A: The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast
Guard.
B: Failure to report the spill may result in a fine.
C: The company can be fined for the spill.
D: The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean up of
the spill.
136: Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's
name?
A: Hand-portable fire extinguisher
B: Life preserver
C: Fire hose
D: Lifeboat oar
137: The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the
engineering department is the ____________________.
A: Master
B: Chief Mate
C: Chief Engineer
D: First Assistant
138: A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb.
To remove it you should _____.
A: pull it out with pliers
B: cut the skin from around the hook
C: push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook
D: have a surgeon remove it
139: When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team
should crouch as low as possible to __________.
A: protect themselves from smoke
B: obtain the best available air
C: allow the heat and steam to pass overhead
D: All of the above
140: Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
A: She will have a large metacentric height.
B: Her period of roll will be large due to her large
metacentric height.
C: She will have an unusually high center of gravity.
D: She will pitch heavily.
141: Which emergency is required to be covered at the required
periodic drills on a fishing vessel?
A: Recovering an individual from the water
B: Steering casualty
C: Emergency towing
D: Loss of propulsion power
142: You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in
ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to
discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea?
A: 3
B: 12
C: 25
D: Must be retained aboard
143: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which
procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a
raft?
A: Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.
B: Get plenty of rest.
C: Keep the entrance curtains open.
D: All of the above
144: The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is _____.
A: one and one-half times the length of a dot
B: twice the length of a dot
C: three times the length of a dot
D: four times the length of a dot
145: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the
navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE?
A: The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean up of
the spill.
B: The Department of Interior is responsible for the clean up
of the spill.
C: A warning broadcast must be made by radiotelephone.
D: The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast
Guard.
146: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing.
You must _____.
A: administer oxygen
B: immediately check his pulse and start CPR
C: make the victim comfortable in a bunk
D: immediately give a stimulant, by force if necesssary
147: Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The
number of sanitary inspections required is _______.
A: one
B: three
C: six
D: twelve
148: First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to
_____.
A: lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding
stops
B: stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
C: apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the
bleeding stops
D: apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and
cover it
149: A signal indicating zone time is preceded with the letter
________.
150: A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of
the cargo is _________________________.
A: evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are
full
B: concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty
C: concentrated low and the double bottoms are full
D: concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
151: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 1.50 feet
B: 1.96 feet
C: 2.21 feet
D: 2.78 feet
152: What is the function of the bypass valve on the
self-contained breathing apparatus?
A: The valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in
the bottle and prevent the bottle from exploding.
B: In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve
can be operated manually to give the wearer air.
C: When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above
atmospheric pressure, the valve opens to release pressure.
D: The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3
psi above atmospheric pressure.
153: If you reach shore in a life raft, the first thing to do is
_________.
A: drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
B: find some wood for a fire
C: get the provisions out of the raft
D: set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it
154: The standard rate of signalling by flashing light is ______.
A: twenty letters per minute
B: thirty letters per minute
C: forty letters per minute
D: fifty letters per minute
155: When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what
should you do after reporting the discharge?
A: Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from
the water.
B: Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil.
C: Throw sand on the water to sink the oil.
D: Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers
156: The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted
on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________.
A: "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space
along the vessel's sides and transom for each passenger
B: "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every
10 square feet of deck space available for passenger use
C: "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space
for each passenger to rest his/her buttocks upon
D: Any or a combination of the above criteria
157: On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters
are the responsibility of the _______________________.
A: Master and Second Mate
B: Master and Chief Engineer
C: Master and union delegate
D: Master and Chief Mate
158: A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe
bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and
direct pressure. What should you do next?
A: Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting.
B: Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.
C: Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic.
D: Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost
blood.
159: The class A EPIRB transmits a signal ____________.
A: that follows the curvature of the earth
B: that can be picked up by SARSAT satellite
C: that activates an alarm on board nearby aircraft
D: to alert shore stations and then transmits a homing signal
160: A vessel is tender if cargo weight is ___________.
A: concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
B: concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
C: evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
D: concentrated and with the double bottoms full
161: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 2.15 feet
B: 1.83 feet
C: 1.64 feet
D: 1.19 feet
162: The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained
breathing apparatus is to ____________.
A: control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body
B: allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
C: release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle
to explode
D: allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle
163: You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high
latitutes, the greatest danger is _____.
A: asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
B: hypothermia caused by cold temperature
C: collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
D: starvation
164: You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has
answered your call properly. You now send your call sign
"DE KLIS". He should respond with _____.
A: TTTT
B: his own call letters
C: DE KLIS
D: R
165: Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire
extinguishing agent?
A: It is more effective than CO2.
B: It leaves no residue.
C: It is noncorrosive.
D: It is always non-toxic.
166: On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered
semi-portable?
A: A-II
B: C-II
C: B-III
D: All of the above
167: One method of controlling rats on vessels is by
rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by _____________.
A: installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in port
B: keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of
garbage
C: eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is
constructed
D: trapping and/or poisoning the rats
168: In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound
should be controlled by ___________.
A: applying direct pressure to the wound
B: submerging the wound in lukewarm water
C: cooling the wound with ice
D: applying a tourniquet
169: The signal T 0735 means _____.
A: The Greenwich mean time is 0735
B: The zone time is 0735
C: The latitude is 7ø 35'
D: The longitude is 7ø 35'
170: In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when
carrying a cargo of lumber, you should ____________________.
A: maximize your deck load
B: distribute lumber so that those stowing most compactly per
unit of weight are in the upper holds
C: place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
D: keep the vessel's frame spaces free from lumber
171: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part
of your vessel. If possible you should ____________________.
A: call for assistance
B: abandon ship to windward
C: put the vessel's stern into the wind
D: keep going at half speed
172: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a
question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight
bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of
Federal Regulations would you find the answer?
A: Subchapter B
B: Subchapter S
C: Subchapter T
D: Subchapter F
173: While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical
weather _____.
A: the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block
cooling breezes
B: the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent
excessive air pressure
C: deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
D: the entrance curtains should never be opened
174: If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be
indicated by ____________.
A: D120380
B: D801203
C: D031280
D: D800312
175: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be
dispensed with if the __________.
A: Coast Guard has the approved stability test results of a
sister vessel
B: projected cost is unreasonable
C: Coast Guard does not have a qualified inspector available
D: vessel is of a proven design
176: On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are
considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of
more than _______________.
A: 55 pounds
B: 75 pounds
C: 95 pounds
D: 125 pounds
177: Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its
possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should
determine that the source _____________.
A: is used by a city
B: has been treated with chlorine
C: is approved by the Public Health Service
D: is not from surface water
178: Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by ______.
A: applying direct pressure to the wound
B: heavy application of a disinfectant
C: pouring ice water directly onto the wound
D: pinching the wound closed
179: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this
draft, the displacement is 6000 tons. The length of the
vessel is 450 feet, beam is 50 feet, and the TPI is 45.
What is the KM? (See the P-K table in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book)
A: 19.5 feet
B: 21.4 feet
C: 23.7 feet
D: 25.2 feet
180: Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?
A: It has a small GM.
B: It pitches heavily.
C: It has an unusually high center of gravity.
D: Its period of roll is short.
181: Gas masks __________.
A: should be worn while fighting a fire
B: can be used in atmospheres deficient in oxygen
C: filter contaminants from air that is to be breathed
D: may be substituted for a self-contained breathing apparatus
182: Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance
between the forward-most and the after-most points on a
vessel's waterline?
A: LWL
B: LOA
C: LOD
D: LLL
183: Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable life raft?
A: The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water.
B: Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it.
C: The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated.
D: All of the above
184: When signalling by flashing light, the signal "C" should be
used to indicate a(n) _____.
A: affirmative statement
B: question
C: change from affirmative to negative
D: request for the identity signal of the receiving stations
185: Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the
pollution prevention regulations?
A: Petroleum and fuel oil
B: Sludge
C: Oil mixed with dredge spoil
D: Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes
186: Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and
figures such as "Fire Station No. 1", "2", "3", etc. The
height of the letters and figures must be at least ________.
A: 1/2 inch
B: 1 inch
C: 1-1/2 inches
D: 2 inches
187: What represents poor sanitary procedures?
A: Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking)
water.
B: Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in
the bilge.
C: Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles,
dirt may gather.
D: After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize
them in water of at least 170ø F (76.7ø C).
188: The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by
_______.
A: direct pressure on the wound
B: elevating the wounded area
C: pressure on a pressure point
D: a tourniquet above the wound
189: The purpose of the inclining experiment is to ________.
A: determine the location of the metacenter
B: determine the lightweight center of gravity location
C: verify the hydrostatic data
D: verify data in the vessel's operating manual
190: Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable
roll to a stiff vessel?
A: Concentrate weights in the upper tween-deck wings
B: Add weight near the centerline of the lower hold
C: Move weights lower in the ship
D: Ballast the peak tanks
191: Where will you find the requirements for the lights that
must be displayed on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is
being towed?
A: Notice to Mariners
B: COLREGS
C: Coast Pilot
D: Light List
192: When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should
__________.
A: use different fire hose pressures
B: use fire hoses of different sizes
C: not attack the fire from opposite sides
D: not wear protective clothing
193: Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with which of
the following?
A: Tanks for the storage of drinking water
B: Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing
C: A hydraulic start diesel engine
D: Auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear)
194: Which signal given by flashing light changes a
statement into a question?
195: As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken
steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a
U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST?
A: Rig a boom for recovery.
B: Call the Coast Guard.
C: Alert the fire department.
D: Inform the Environmental Protection Agency.
196: The term "gross tonnage" refers to ___________.
A: the weight of the vessel measured in long tons
B: the weight of a vesel with all tanks full
C: the weight of a grossly overloaded vessel
D: the vessel's approximate volume including all enclosed
spaces less certain exempt spaces
197: Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to
the ______.
A: fire-main system
B: feed-water system
C: freshwater sanitary system
D: domestic water tank
198: A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal
injuries should __________.
A: be assisted in walking around
B: be examined then walked to a bunk
C: not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance
arrives
D: not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a
chair or bunk
199: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 3.6 feet
B: 4.2 feet
C: 4.4 feet
D: 4.9 feet
200: Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
A: It has a large GM.
B: Its period of roll is long.
C: It has a very low center of gravity.
D: It has a good transverse stability.
201: Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats.
Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in
flames?
A: The ventilators will automatically close by the action of
fusible links.
B: The motor takes its air supply from outside the lifeboat to
prevent asphyxiation of the crew.
C: A water spray system to cool the outside of the boat is
operated by a high-volume manual pump.
D: An air tank will provide about ten minutes of air for the
survivors and the engine.
202: The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must
be __________.
A: made of steel or bronze wire rope
B: corrosion resistant
C: not less than 50 feet in length
D: All of the above
203: The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be _________.
A: forwardmost on the port side
B: forwardmost on the starboard side
C: abaft #1 lifeboat port side
D: abaft #1 lifeboat starboard side
204: When signalling by flashing light, a correctly received
repetition of a signal is acknowledged by the signal _____.
205: When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be
held responsible?
A: Master only
B: Owners only
C: Licensed officers only
D: Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the
operation
206: Oceangoing dry bulk cargo vessels over 1000 GT must have
approved combination-type fire nozzles at all _____________.
A: fire stations aboard the vessel, except for those in open
deck areas that serve only cargo holds
B: interior fire stations
C: fire stations near a space with flammable liquids
D: engine room fire stations
207: Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its
safety for drinking?
A: Nitrogen
B: Chlorine
C: Carbon
D: Oxygen
208: What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first
aid?
A: Control bleeding
B: Reduce pain
C: Immobilize a fracture
D: Reset the bone
209: The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found _________.
A: on the port side
B: on the starboard side
C: abaft #1 lifeboat on the port side
D: abaft #1 lifeboat on the starboard side
210: Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability
_______________.
A: for all angles of inclination
B: for large angles of inclination
C: for small angles of inclination
D: in no case
211: The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures
the __________.
A: amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space
B: amount of combustible gas as a percentage of the lower
explosive limit in a confined space
C: concentration of CO2 as a percentage of oxygen in a confined
space
D: None of the above
212: In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to
MARPOL 73/78 is NOT applicable to a(n) _____________.
A: recreational yacht
B: uninspected towing vessel
C: uninspected passenger vessel under 100 GT
D: U.S. government vessel in non-commercial service
213: Most lifeboats are equipped with ___________________.
A: unbalanced rudders
B: balanced rudders
C: contraguide rudders
D: straight rudders
214: In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters
will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the
transmission back to the sender?
A: REPEAT
B: RPT
C: RPB
D: UD AA
216: What is the total number of approved low-velocity spray
("water-fog") applicators required aboard a tankship?
217: Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast
Guard representative at the time of a stability test?
A: A stability letter.
B: Tank sounding tables and draft mark locations.
C: Capacity plans showing the vertical and longitudinal
centers of gravity of stowage spaces and tanks.
D: General arrangement plans of decks; holds and inner bottoms.
218: A compound fracture is a fracture in which _______________.
A: more than one bone is broken
B: the same bone is broken in more than one place
C: there is never any internal bleeding
D: the bone may be visible
219: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a
non-self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit under tow
is considered to be a ______________________.
A: non-displacement vessel
B: limited vessel
C: power-driven vessel
D: vessel
220: Metacentric height is a measure of _______________________.
A: initial stability only
B: stability through all angles
C: maximum righting arm
D: All of the above
221: Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
A: It increases in direct proportion to the length of the tank
times the breadth squared.
B: It decreases at increased angles of heel due to pocketing
when a tank is 90% full.
C: It decreases in direct proportion to increasing specific
gravity of the liquid in the tank.
D: In practice, the correction is considered to be a virtual
reduction of KG.
222: On surface type offshore drilling units, each lifeboat and
life raft must be capable of being launched to the water at
the minimum operating draft when the unit has an adverse
list up to _________.
A: 20²
B: 15²
C: 10²
D: 5²
223: The steering oar in a lifeboat is ____________.
A: shorter than the others
B: used for the stroke oar
C: used by the forward man in the boat to direct the bow
D: longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern
224: If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should
be used to send the group "TRUE BEARING 045 DEGREES"?
A: 045
B: B045
C: B045T
D: A045
225: The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person
in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard
as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to
notify the Coast Guard can lead to a fine of
________________.
A: $500 or 30 days in jail, or both
B: $1,000 or 60 days in jail, or both
C: $10,000 or 1 year in jail, or both
D: $50,000 or 5 years in jail, or both
226: How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the
weather decks of a tankship?
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: Four
227: The Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon on a cargo
vessel must be stowed ____________________.
A: in an inside passageway
B: in an approved bracket
C: so that it is accessible from the bridge of the vessel
D: so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
228: Which is the most serious type of fracture?
A: Compound
B: Greenstick
C: Closed
D: Crack
229: Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will
stop ________.
A: oil from flowing out of the tank vent
B: air from entering the tank vent
C: vapors from leaving the tank vent
D: flames on deck from entering the tank vent
230: Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.
A: removing loose water
B: adding weight low in the vessel
C: closing crossover valves between partly filled double
bottom tanks
D: All of the above
231: The Coast Guard inspection required before a Certificate of
Ispection can be issued is conducted________________.
A: when deemed necessary by the Regional Inspection Center
B: after you apply in writing to the nearest Officer in Charge
of Marine Inspection(OCMI)
C: at random from a Coast Guard patrol boat
D: after a formal complaint is filed with the OCMI
232: You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered
a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs
of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: Four
233: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after
capsizing IF the ___________________.
A: lower ballast tanks are filled with water
B: fuel tanks are not less than half full
C: passengers are strapped to their seats
D: sea anchor is deployed to windward
234: What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"?
A: Date September 10
B: Date October 9
C: Distance 910 miles
D: Longitude 9ø10'
235: If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, you
may be fined up to ________________.
A: $500
B: $1,000
C: $5,000
D: $10,000
236: What is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a
barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps,
hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed?
237: Where must a Class A EPIRB be stowed?
A: Under lock and key
B: Where it can float free
C: In the engine room
D: In the pilothouse
238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a
compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is
controlled and ____.
A: the bone has been set
B: the fracture is immobilized
C: radio advice has been obtained
D: the wound has been washed
239: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
A: It is added to GM at light drafts and subtracted at deep
drafts.
B: It is increased if the slack tank is not on the centerline.
C: It is decreased if the slack tank is below the KG of the
vessel.
D: The correction decreases as the draft increases due to
loading dry cargo.
240: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry
includes vessels that ________.
A: operate in other than ocean or coastwise service
B: have provisions only for deck passengers, vehicles, or both
C: operate on a short run on a frequent schedule between two
points over the most direct water route
D: All of the above
241: The signal L1210 means the ______.
A: latitude is 12ø10'
B: longitude is 12ø10'
C: GMT is 1210
D: zone time is 1210
242: You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing
apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs
of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: Four
243: Which statement concerning storm oil is CORRECT?
A: It has a moderate effect in surf.
B: It is most effective in shallow water.
C: It reduces friction between wind and water.
D: Mineral oil is the most effective type.
244: A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard
halyard. The signal means "_____."
A: an aircraft is ditched in position indicated
B: the aircraft is still afloat
C: there is no danger of explosion
D: an aircraft is circling over an accident
245: Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated
area because __________.
A: they generate heat
B: they emit hydrogen
C: of the toxic fumes they emit
D: they recharge faster in a well ventilated space
246: On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how
many international shore connections must be provided?
247: During a stability test on a small passenger vessel ______.
A: the vessel must be moored snugly
B: each tank must be partially full to show it does not leak
C: all dunnage, tools, and extraneous items are secured
D: water under vessel must be deep enough to prevent grounding
248: You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the
lower arm. Which action should you take?
A: Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones
and splint.
B: Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line,
splint, and apply a pressure dressing.
C: Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the
bleeding, and splint.
D: Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control
bleeding, then apply a temporary splint, and place the
victim in bed.
249: Large quantities of gas in the shale shaker area may be an
indication of ____________.
A: a break in the riser system
B: low formation pressure
C: a break in the drill string
D: high formation pressure
250: Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?
A: KG will increase
B: Metacentric height will increase
C: KB will increase
D: Reserve buoyancy will decrease
251: Free communication effect is in direct proportion to _____.
A: length and width of space
B: length of space only
C: width of space only
D: neither length nor width
252: What, when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a
fire?
A: Nitrogen
B: Sodium
C: Oxygen
D: Carbon dioxide
253: In order to benefit from the use of storm oil in heavy seas,
the storm oil should be spread _____________.
A: around the rudder and screws
B: completely around the vessel
C: to leeward of the vessel
D: to windward of the vessel
254: If you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if he had a doctor on
board, you would hoist the flag signal _____________.
A: AM
B: AL
C: AN 1
D: MA
255: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge.
Regulations say that cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and
Butterworth plates may remain open without flame screens
ONLY ______________.
A: if the barge is towed on a hawser astern
B: if an approved type B-II fire extinguisher is provided
C: when the open tanks are gas free
D: for periods not to exceed five minutes
256: What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo
vessel of 2,000 GT?
257: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an
EPIRB.
A: A sailing vessel
B: A fishing vessel
C: A non self-propelled vessel
D: A towing vessel
258: In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the
treatment for the injury and ______________.
A: application of CPR
B: removal of any foreign objects
C: administration of oxygen
D: for traumatic shock
259: What does NOT affect the value of the free surface
correction?
A: Width of the tank
B: Length of the tank
C: Registered tonnage
D: Specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
260: A 12-foot, 2-1/2 inch, low-velocity fog applicator is
designed to produce a minimum fog pattern diameter of _____.
A: 65 feet
B: 25 feet
C: 22 feet
D: 8 feet
261: A person who willfully violates safety regulations may be
fined up to $(SA)5,000 and ___________.
A: imprisoned for up to a year
B: imprisoned for up to five years
C: forbidden to work in the fishing industry
D: no other penalty may be applied
262: Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat
rise in a compartment?
A: Manual fire detection system
B: Automatic fire detection system
C: Smoke detection system
D: Watchman's supervisory system
263: Which oil is not suitable for use as storm oil?
A: Fish oil
B: Vegetable oil
C: Mineral oil
D: Animal oil
264: While using the International Code of Signals, if the
receiving station can distinguish the flag signal of the
transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of
it, the station can hoist the flag signal ____.
265: The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution
regulations, means _____________________.
A: spilling
B: leaking
C: dumping
D: All of the above
266: What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo
vessel of 900 GT?
267: Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
A: Class A
B: Class B
C: Class C
D: Catergory I
268: What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?
A: Keep the patient warm but not hot.
B: Have the injured person lie down.
C: Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation.
D: Relieve the pain of the injury.
269: To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant,
secure the valve and ______________.
A: replace the gasket in the male coupling
B: reduce fire pump pressure
C: replace the gasket in the female coupling
D: rethread the male coupling
270: When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck
the ___________.
A: center of gravity will move upwards
B: GM will increase
C: center of buoyancy will move downward
D: All of the above
271: A fishing vessel casualty must be reported to the Coast
Guard if it involves _______________.
A: loss of life
B: an injury requiring only first aid
C: $(SA)10,000 in property damage
D: loss of equipment which doesn't reduce the vessel's
maneuverability
272: Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________.
A: smoke sensors
B: the difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar
metals
C: pressure loss due to air being heated
D: an electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with
the beam
273: Which type of oil is best for use as storm oil?
A: Fish oil
B: Crude oil
C: Lube oil
D: Mineral oil
274: The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2,
________.
A: answering pennant, first substitute
B: answering pennant, second substitute
C: space, second substitute
D: answering pennant, third substitute
275: When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must
obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator
before using ___________.
A: skimmers
B: straw
C: chemical agents
D: sawdust
276: For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international
voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the
two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating
simultaneously is approximately _______.
A: 35 psi
B: 50 psi
C: 70 psi
D: 100 psi
277: The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon
(EPIRB) must be tested _______________.
A: weekly
B: monthly
C: every 2 months
D: every 3 months
278: What is a treatment for traumatic shock?
A: Administer CPR.
B: Administer fluids.
C: Open clothing to allow cooling of the body.
D: Keep the victim in a sitting position.
279: The purpose of storm oil in a sea anchor is to ____________.
A: weigh down the anchor
B: lubricate the anchor
C: repel dangerous fish
D: smooth the sea
280: In the regulations that apply to small passenger vessels an
"open boat" is a vessel ____________________.
A: that is used for charter fishing or tours and is open to
the public
B: on which gambling and consumption of alcoholic beverages is
permitted
C: that is docked and open for visitors
D: that is not protected from entry of water by means of a
complete weathertight deck
281: The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed
CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs
110 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the
CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the
manufacturer?
A: 200 lbs
B: 205 lbs
C: 210 lbs
D: 220 lbs
282: The difference in water spray pattern between the
high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the
all-purpose nozzle is due to _________.
A: a difference in water pressure
B: the method of breaking up the water stream
C: the length of the applicator
D: All of the above
283: Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of ___________.
A: diminishing the height of the seas
B: lengthening the distance between successive crests
C: increasing the height of the seas
D: preventing the wave crests from breaking
284: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist
G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute.
A: G421G
B: G4214
C: G421G421
D: G4211
285: The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for
removal of surface oil is __________.
A: the most common method used in the United States
B: too expensive for common use
C: generally safe to sea life
D: authorized only with prior approval of the Federal On-Scene
Coordinator
286: On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of
carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed
within ___________.
A: 1 minute
B: 2 minutes
C: 4 minutes
D: 6 minutes
287: The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position
Indicating Radiobeacon (EPIRB) is _______________________.
A: secured inside the wheelhouse
B: tested annually
C: tested monthly
D: secured in the emergency locker
288: A negative metacentric height ______________.
A: will always cause a vessel to capsize
B: always results from off-center weights
C: should always be immediately corrected
D: All of the above are correct
289: You are at the helm of a sailing vessel under sail on the
starboard tack, close hauled, and you are instructed to
"head up". You should ___________________.
A: turn the wheel to port if you are steering with a wheel
B: push the tiller to starboard if you are steering with a
tiller
C: turn the rudder to starboard
D: All of the above are correct
290: What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck
into the lower hold of a vessel?
A: The GM will increase.
B: The metacenter will move upward.
C: The center of buoyancy will move upward.
D: All of the above
291: A Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger
vessel describes ____________.
A: the mimimum fire extinguishing equipment, lifejackets,
survival and rescue craft she must carry
B: the name of the managing operator
C: any special conditions or restrictions on her operation
D: All the above
292: High-velocity fog _________________.
A: is a finer, more diffuse water spray than low-velocity fog
B: requires that the water pressure be no greater than 60 psi
C: produces an effective fog pattern no more than 6 feet beyond
the nozzle
D: extinguishes a fire by absorbing heat and reducing the
supply of oxygen
293: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are
severely damaged?
A: They should be replaced.
B: They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in
use.
C: They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress.
D: They can be used for children.
294: If a receiving station cannot distinguish a signal sent by
flag hoist it should _______________.
A: hoist ZQ
B: hoist ZL
C: keep the answering pennant at the dip
D: raise and lower the answering pennant
295: The most common type of containment device(s) for spilled
oil on the water is(are) ____________________.
A: straw
B: booms
C: skimmers
D: chemical dispersants
296: In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight
loss exceeds _____________________.
A: 10% of weight of full bottle
B: 15% of weight of full bottle
C: 20% of weight of charge
D: 10% of weight of charge
297: Which information is NOT required to be posted in or near
the wheelhouse?
A: Stopping time and distance from full speed while maintaining
course with minimum rudder
B: A diagram of advance and transfer for turns of 30ø, 60ø, 90ø
and 120ø at full speed with maximum rudder and constant
power
C: For vessels with a fixed propeller, a table of shaft RPMs
for a representative range of speeds
D: Operating instructions for change-over procedures for remote
steering gear systems
298: Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock?
A: Slow, deep breathing
B: Pale, cold skin
C: Weak, rapid pulse
D: Restlessness and anxiety
299: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER
(Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
A: An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render
assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant.
B: There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent
within the AMVER system.
C: An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to
give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before
entering a U.S. port from offshore.
D: The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels
responding to calls for assistance.
300: In the small passenger vessel regulations a coastwise route
is defined as one that is __________.
A: not more than 50 statute miles from shore in the
Gulf of Mexico
B: on ocean waters more than 200 nautical miles from
shore in the Gulf of Alaska
C: not more than 20 statute miles from the nearest safe
harbor in the Pacific Ocean
D: not more than 20 nautical miles offshore in the any ocean
301: Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the
free surface correction?
A: The width of the tank
B: The length of the tank
C: The draft of the vessel
D: The specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
302: If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your
vessel, which action is most important concerning the
stability of the vessel?
A: Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
B: Pumping fire-fighting water overboard
C: Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
D: Removing burned debris from the cargo hold
303: Plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel which
is _______________________.
A: 25 miles from shore
B: 12 miles from shore
C: 3 miles from shore
D: None of the above are correct.
304: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist
F 2 1 3 second substitute?
A: F2131
B: F2132
C: F213213
D: F213F213
305: Which method of oil cleanup is usually NOT allowed?
A: Employing a boom
B: Using suction equipment
C: Chemical agents
D: Skimmers
306: In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not
be used for any other purpose EXCEPT _________.
A: in connection with the fire-detecting system
B: in connection with the water sprinkler system
C: to ventilate the space
D: to run the emergency wiring to the space
307: Your ship is returning to New Orleans from a foreign voyage
and carrying a bulk cargo of anhydrous ammonia. You must
notify the Captain of the Port, New Orleans, ______________.
A: at least 24 hours before entering port
B: if you are not participating in the USMER system
C: only if you have a hazardous condition aboard
D: only if your arrival will vary more than six hours from your
ETA reported to AMVER
308: A person being treated for shock should be wrapped in warm
coverings to _______________.
A: increase body heat
B: preserve body heat
C: avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic movement
D: protect the person from injury during transportation
309: Life jackets should be marked with the ________________.
A: maximum weight allowed
B: stowage space assigned
C: vessel's home port
D: vessel's name
310: A vessel's light draft displacement is 7400 tons. The
center of gravity at this draft is 21.5 ft. above the keel.
The following weights are loaded: (WT. #1-450 tons, VCG
#1-17.4 ft.; WT. #2-220 tons, VCG #2-11.6 ft.; WT. #3-65
tons, VCG #3-7.0 ft.). The new CG above the keel is ______.
A: 14.7 feet
B: 17.8 feet
C: 18.7 feet
D: 20.9 feet
311: Spontaneous ignition can result from __________________.
A: an unprotected drop-light bulb
B: careless disposal or storage of material
C: smoking in bed
D: worn electrical wires on power tools
312: The spray of water in low-velocity fog will have ________.
A: greater range than high-velocity fog
B: lesser range than high-velocity fog
C: about the same range as high-velocity fog
D: greater range than a solid stream
313: Kapok life jackets should NOT be _________.
A: stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted
B: used as seats, pillows, or foot rests
C: left on open decks
D: All of the above
314: The flag hoist 1.33 would be sent as _____.
A: 1, answer pennant, 3, first substitute
B: 1, answer pennant, 3, second substitute
C: 1, answer pennant, 3, third substitute
D: N, 1, answer pennant, 3
315: The maximum number of passengers a "T"-Boat may carry ____.
A: is stated on the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
B: is the number authorized in the Navigation Rules
C: depends on the number of lifejackets you carry
D: is the number authorized by your license
316: The space containing the cylinders for the carbon
dioxide(C02) fire extinguishing system must be designed to
preclude an anticipated ambient temperature over _______.
A: 80ø F
B: 95ø F
C: 130ø F
D: 150ø F
317: Your vessel will be entering the navigable waters of the
United States. You are required by regulations to ______.
A: test the primary and secondary steering systems no more than
8 hours before entering
B: correct the charts of the area to be transited using the
Notice(s) to Mariners or foreign equivalent reasonably
available
C: have a copy of Radio Navigational Aids
D: check the magnetic compass for the correct deviation
318: The best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an
accident is to ___________.
A: have the victim exercise to increase circulation
B: keep the victim from electrical equipment
C: keep the victim warm and dry while lying down
D: apply ice packs and avoid excitement
319: Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?
A: A
B: B
C: A and B
D: B and C
320: As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental
effect of free surface ________________.
A: increases
B: decreases
C: remains the same
D: may increase or decrease depending on the fineness of the
vessel's form
321: A signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded
with ______.
A: a code hoist to indicate Greenwich mean time to follow
B: the letter G
C: the letters GT
D: the letter Z
322: A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing
agent is its characteristic of _______________.
A: alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid
state becomes a vapor
B: absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a
liquid to a vapor
C: rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a
vapor
D: rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
323: You must make a written application to obtain or renew your
"T-Boat's" Certificate of Inspection _____________.
A: on form CG-835
B: at the shipyard where you are hauled out
C: on form CG-3752
D: everytime your boat is hauled out
324: The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is
channel _____.
325: For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed
container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line
must hold a minimum of ___.
A: three barrels
B: four barrels
C: six barrels
D: eight barrels
326: CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they
are stored must _______________.
A: NOT contain more than 200 pounds of CO2
B: be automatically operated by a heat actuator
C: have an audible alarm
D: All of the above
327: The maneuvering information required to be posted in the
wheelhouse must be based on certain conditions. Which of the
following is NOT one of these conditions?
A: The hull must be clean.
B: There must be calm weather-wind 10 knots or less and a calm
sea.
C: There must be no current.
D: The depth of the water must be at least one and one-half
times the draft.
328: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive
damage to the skin with charring present. How is this
injury classified using standard medical terminology?
A: Dermal burn
B: Third-degree burn
C: Major burn
D: Lethal burn
329: Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
A: It has the same affect on initial stability whether the tank
is 75% full or 25% full.
B: The free surface effect usually increases at angles of heel
above 25ø.
C: The effect increases if the tank is off the centerline.
D: The effect can be reduced by shifting weights vertically.
330: Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also
have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the
event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks
into the dump tank which would _______.
A: reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG
B: not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG
C: reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG
D: not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG
331: One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is
that foam ______________.
A: cannot be made with salt water
B: is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface
C: is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters
D: conducts electricity
332: When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the
possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow
back is most likely to occur when _________________.
A: pressure builds up in the nozzle which causes a surge of
water
B: the only opening in a passageway is the one from which the
nozzle is being advanced
C: pressure in the fire hose drops below 100 psi
D: a bulkhead collapses due to heat and pressure
333: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets?
A: Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.
B: Life preservers are designed to turn an unconscious person's
face clear of the water.
C: Life preservers must always be worn with the same side
facing outwards to float properly.
D: Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the
water and should not be used.
334: When are the best times to send the radiotelegraph
auto-alarm distress signal?
A: From 15 to 18 minutes past the hour and 45 to 48 minutes
past the hour
B: From on the hour to 3 minutes past the hour and 30 to 33
minutes past the hour
C: From 18 to 45 minutes past the hour and from 48 minutes past
the hour to the hour
D: From 3 to 30 minutes past the hour and 33 minutes past the
hour to the hour
335: Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels of oil for discharge.
The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches.
The container around each loading manifold must hold ______.
A: three barrels
B: four barrels
C: six barrels
D: eight barrels
336: Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces,
paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces
when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed _________.
A: 150 lbs
B: 300 lbs
C: 450 lbs
D: 600 lbs
337: You are sailing the navigable waters of the United States.
You must have a currently corrected copy (or extract) of
the _____.
A: List of Lights
B: Tide Tables
C: Sailing Directions
D: Pollution prevention regulations
338: A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the
skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical
terminology this is a ______________.
A: major burn
B: secondary burn
C: second-degree burn
D: blister burn
339: If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you
would ________________.
A: order the engine room to reduce pressure on the fire pump
B: put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way
forward
C: attach a low-velocity fog applicator with the nozzle shut
down
D: put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way back
340: Which statement about the free surface correction is
TRUE?
A: It is added to the uncorrected GM to arrive at the corrected
available GM.
B: It is obtained by dividing the free surface moments by 12
times the volume of displacement.
C: It is obtained by dividing the total free surface by
the total vertical moments.
D: It is subtracted from the total longitudinal moments before
dividing by displacement to find LCG.
341: The Master or other vessel representative must contact the
nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office within five days of
a(n) _________.
A: grounding
B: injury which requires first aid
C: accident which requires $(SA)2500 of repairs
D: All of the above are correct.
342: Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel
must be reported to the __________.
A: Coast Guard
B: vessel owner or owner's agent
C: Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D: National Fisheries Service
343: An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using _____.
A: a boat bucket
B: an air tank filled with water
C: an oar and canvas weighted down
D: All of the above
344: The signal that actuates the radio auto-alarms on a vessel
is a series of _____________________.
A: 6 dashes sent in one minute
B: 6 dashes sent in two minutes
C: 12 dashes sent in one minute
D: 12 dashes sent in two minutes
345: A 150-GT vessel (built in 1960) is loading diesel fuel. What
is the minimum capacity of the drip pans required for
placement under or around each fuel tank vent, overflow, and
fill pipe?
A: 1 gallon
B: 5 gallons
C: 1 barrel
D: 2 barrels
346: The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed extinguishing
system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient for
___________________.
A: all the spaces of a vessel
B: all cargo spaces
C: the engine room and largest cargo space
D: the space requiring the largest amount
347: The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with
the nozzle open is ______________.
A: the hose could burst
B: the nozzle end will whip about causing damage or injury
C: water damage to vessel's cargo or structure
D: personnel might trip over the hose
348: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening
of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard
MEDICAL terminology, this is a ____________________.
A: Minor burn
B: Superficial burn
C: Extremity burn
D: First-degree burn
349: A marine radar system for surface navigation must be fitted
on all ocean or coastwise vessels of over _______.
A: 1,400 GT
B: 1,500 GT
C: 1,600 GT
D: 1,700 GT
350: The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result
of liquids ____________.
A: flowing from side to side within the vessel
B: flowing from fore to aft within a vessel
C: flowing in and out of a holed wing tank
D: pocketing in a slack tank as a vessel heels
351: What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?
A: The GMT is 1325.
B: The latitude is 13ø25'.
C: The zone time is 1325.
D: The longitude is 13ø25'.
352: What is an advantage of water fog over a straight stream of
water in fighting an oil fire?
A: It has a smothering effect on the fire.
B: It removes combustible vapors from the air.
C: It gives more protection to fire fighting personnel.
D: All of the above
353: When a sea anchor is used in landing in a heavy surf,
headway is checked by _________________.
A: slacking the tripping line and towing the apex end forward
B: slacking the tripping line and towing the mouth forward by
the holding line
C: towing with the tripping line and the holding line slack
D: towing the apex end forward with the tripping line
354: The distress message of a ship should include considerable
information which might facilitate the rescue. This
information should ________________.
A: ALWAYS be included in the initial distress message
B: be sent to a Coast Guard station FIRST
C: be transmitted as a series of short messages, if time
allows
D: include the vessel's draft
355: The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the
waterplane _____________.
A: about which the vessel lists and trims
B: which coincides with the center of buoyancy
C: which, in the absence of external forces, is always
vertically aligned with the center of gravity
D: which is shown in the hydrostatic tables as VCB
356: The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each
cargo space on a cargo vessel is equal to _____________.
A: the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 100
B: one pound of CO2 per cubic foot of space
C: one pound of CO2 per square foot of deck area
D: the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 30
357: The operator of a vessel's radiotelephone must hold at least
a ___________________.
A: third class radiotelegraph operator certificate
B: restricted radiotelephone operator permit
C: general radiotelephone operator license
D: mates license
358: When treating a person for third-degree burns, you should
___________.
A: submerge the burn area in cold water
B: make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation
C: cover the burns with thick, sterile dressings
D: break blisters and remove dead tissue
359: A vessel is floating in saltwater at a mean draft of 14
feet. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam 50 feet,
TPI 45. The BM is 16.34 feet. What is the vessel's
displacement in tons?
A: 4,500 tons P .70 K .042
B: 6,000 tons P .75 K .048
C: 7,560 tons P .80 K .055
D: 7,900 tons P .85 K .062
360: The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids
flowing _________.
A: from side to side in the tanks of the vessel
B: from fore to aft in the tanks of a vessel
C: in and out of a vessel that is holed in a wing tank
D: in and out of a vessel that is holed in a peak tank
361: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside
a chain locker?
A: Flame safety lamp
B: Combustible gas indicator
C: Oxygen indicator
D: H2S meter
362: Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to _______.
A: fight an electrical fire
B: fight a magnesium fire
C: eliminate smoke from a compartment
D: All of the above
363: You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in
the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you
should _______.
A: take no action, broaching is recommended in a heavy sea
B: put out the sea anchor
C: put out the sea painter
D: fill the bottom of the boat with about one foot of
water to make it ride better
364: What is the international distress frequency for
radiotelegraph?
A: 156.8 mHz
B: 2182 kHz
C: 500 kHz
D: 300 kHz
365: What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed
for a 150 gross ton vessel constructed on January 7, 1976?
A: At least 5 gallons
B: At least 1 barrel
C: At least 2 barrels
D: At least 3 barrels
366: You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel
is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon
dioxide is required for this space?
A: 1674
B: 2511
C: 3348
D: 5022
367: A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the
________.
A: U.S. Coast Guard
B: Federal Communications Commission
C: Radio Technical Commission for Marine Services
D: Maritime Mobile Service Commission
368: The FIRST concern in treating a person with extensive burns
is _____.
A: reducing disfigurement
B: preventing infection
C: treating for shock
D: reducing swelling
369: A cargo vessel of 9,000 tons displacement is carrying a
slack deep tank of molasses (SG 1.4). The tank measures 20
feet long and 30 feet wide. What will be the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface, with the vessel
floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?
A: .142 ft.
B: .177 ft.
C: .195 ft.
D: .212 ft.
370: What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full
tank onboard a vessel?
A: Corrosion from the shifting liquid
B: Rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid
C: Loss of stability from free surface effect
D: Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting
liquid
371: On a vessel of 12,500 tons displacement, compute the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 35
feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric
height is ___________.
A: .14 ft
B: .45 ft
C: .55 ft
D: .83 ft
372: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the amount of liquid loading required in the
double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 189 tons
B: 174 tons
C: 158 tons
D: No loading required
373: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You
can reduce the possibility of capsizing by _______________.
A: shifting the rudder constantly
B: moving all personnel forward and low
C: moving all personnel aft
D: rigging a sea anchor
374: A vessel operating outside of coastal waters must carry an
automatically activated Emergency Position Indicating Radio
Beacon (EPIRB) if she __________.
A: does not have berthing facilities
B: has berthing and galley facilities
C: is a workboat and her mothership carries an EPIRB
D: None of the above are correct.
375: Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans
and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of
the waste oil?
A: Draining it overboard when the vessel gets underway
B: Placing it in proper disposal facilities
C: Adding sinking agents and discharging it into the water
D: Mixing it with dispersants before draining it overboard
376: Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall be set
with _____________________.
A: the master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo
tanks shut
B: the master control valve open and valves to individual cargo
tanks shut
C: the master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo
tanks open
D: all valves open
377: The regulations governing the frequencies of the
bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone are issued by the ________.
A: Department of Transportation
B: Federal Communications Commission
C: U.S. Coast Guard
D: Department of Defense
378: The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to _____________.
A: wash the burned area with a warm soap and water solution
B: flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold water
C: cover the burned area with talcum powder and bandag it
cover the burned area with talcum powder and bandage it
tightly
D: leave the burned area exposed to the atmosphere
379: Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a vessel
if it is _____________________.
A: 3 miles from shore
B: 12 miles from shore
C: 25 miles from shore
D: Nowhere while afloat
380: You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel.
Which action is most important concerning the stability of
the vessel?
A: Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
B: Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard
C: Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
D: Removing burned debris from the cargo hold
381: What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?
A: The distance is 325 miles.
B: The longitude is 3ø25'.
C: The course is 325ø.
D: Change course to 325ø.
382: A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements
of its Certificate of Inspection but is able to travel to a
shipyard under its own power should ____________.
A: make the trip only after obtaining a "Permit to Proceed to
Another Port for Repair", Form CG-948
B: get underway as soon as possible
C: hire a tug and pilot instead
D: request an Expiration Certificate if the vessel displays a
tendency to sink
383: The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to ____.
A: aid in casting off
B: direct the drift of the vessel
C: aid in its recovery
D: maintain maximum resistance to broaching
384: The radiotelegraphy groups indicating distress,
urgency, and safety, respectively are _____________.
A: SOS, ZZZ, XXX
B: SOS, UUU, SSS
C: SOS, XXX, TTT
D: SOS, TTT, UUU
385: If you are operating a non-ocean going 200 GT vessel,
how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able
to retain on board?
A: 25%
B: 50%
C: 75%
D: 100%
386: On vessels subject to 46 CFR Subchapter T, Certification
Expiration Date Stickers ___________.
A: are issued along with a valid Certificate of
Inspection(COI) to indicate the date the COI expires
B: must be readily visible to each passenger prior to boarding
and to patrolling Coast Guard law enforcement personnel
C: must be placed on glass or other smooth surfaces where they
may be removed without damage to the vessel
D: All of the above
387: If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must
also be aboard?
A: Certificate of Inspection
B: List of ship stations
C: Copy of ship to shore channels
D: Radio station license
388: A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area
of the lower arm. What is the proper treatment for this
injury?
A: Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn
ointment, and bandage.
B: Open any blisters with a sterile needle, apply burn ointment
and bandage.
C: Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material and insure
that nothing is in contact with the burn.
D: Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any
blister and apply burn ointment.
389: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement, compute the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water on the tank tops. The hold is 20
feet long and 30 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric
height is __________.
A: .09 feet
B: .12 feet
C: .14 feet
D: .16 feet
390: A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of
a vessel when it is _____________________.
A: low in the vessel
B: completely empty
C: completely full
D: slack
391: Foam is a very effective smothering agent and _____________.
A: it provides cooling as a secondary effect
B: works well on extinguishing electrical fires
C: can be used to combat combustible metal fires
D: All of the above
392: What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on
the female coupling of a fire hose?
A: Bearing grease and a wire brush
B: Talc and fine sandpaper
C: Fish oil and a soft brush
D: Fresh water, soap, and a stiff brush
393: A sea anchor is _____________________.
A: a heavy anchor with an extra long line used to anchor in
deep water
B: a cone shaped bag used to slow down the wind drift effect
C: a padeye to which the sea painter is made fast
D: made of wood if it is of an approved type
394: If you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone
you should _____________.
A: use English language
B: always use the International Code
C: preface it by the word "interco"
D: follow the transmission with the radio alarm signal
395: You are operating a 1,000 GT non-ocean going tankship.
It must be equipped with _________________.
A: two pumps for discharging oily bilge slops
B: a fixed piping system for bilge slops with one outlet on
each side of the weather deck
C: a means on the weather deck to stop each pump used to
discharge oily waste
D: None of the above
396: Deck foam systems, designed to protect cargo areas on tank
vessels built after January 1, 1975, must have a supply of
foam-producing material to operate the system at its
designed rate of foam production for _________________.
A: 15 minutes without recharging
B: 20 minutes without recharging
C: 25 minutes without recharging
D: 30 minutes without recharging
397: The Departure Report, required by vessels participating in
AMVER, must be sent ___________.
A: as soon as practicable on leaving port
B: prior to departure
C: within 24 hours of departure
D: within 12 hours of departure
398: For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve
pain is to __________.
A: immerse the burn in cold water
B: administer aspirin
C: apply petroleum jelly
D: apply a bandage to exclude air
399: What is the minimum number of people required to safely
handle a 2-1/2 inch fire hose?
400: Whenever a "T-Boat" is hauled out for repairs or
alterations affecting its safety you must ______________.
A: provide a complete set of plans to the Commandant
for review
B: notify the cognizant OCMI
C: schedule a full safety equipment inspection
D: Both B and C
401: On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, what is the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a
tank 60 feet long and 60 feet wide is partially filled with
water?
A: 2.30 feet
B: 2.43 feet
C: 2.48 feet
D: 2.57 feet
402: To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose
coupling, you should use _________________.
A: glycerine
B: graphite
C: kerosene
D: fresh water and soap
403: Due to the shape of the sea anchor, the best way to haul it
back aboard is by _________________.
A: hauling in on the anchor line as you would any anchor
B: getting all hands to assist
C: its trip line
D: cutting the line, as you cannot haul it back in
404: The radiotelegraph alarm signal is ______________.
A: SOS sent three times
B: ten one-second dashes with a four-second interval between
them
C: twelve four-second dashes with a one-second interval between
them
D: twelve one-second dashes with a short interval between them
405: A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved
means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast must
have ________.
A: a fixed piping system for ballast discharge to a reception
facility
B: a discharge outlet for the ballast system on each side of
the weather deck
C: one portable adapter for a shore connection to the ballast
line
D: All of the above
406: A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is
required on all _____________________.
A: T-Boats carrying more than 49 passengers for hire
B: T-Boats that carry more than 12 passengers on an
international voyage
C: T-Boats carrying more than 150 passengers for hire
D: large excursion vessels on lakes, bays, sounds, and
river routes
407: Any person maintaining a listening watch on a
bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone must be able to ___________.
A: speak English
B: repair the unit
C: send Morse Code
D: speak a language the vessel's crew will understand
408: If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should
first remove him from the electrical source and then ______.
A: administer ammonia smelling salts
B: check for serious burns on the body
C: determine if he is breathing
D: massage vigorously to restore circulation
409: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free
surface when a tank 60 feet long and 30 feet wide is
partially filled with salt water, and is fitted with a
centerline bulkhead? (The vessel has a displacement of
10,000 tons.)
A: 0.1 foot
B: 0.8 foot
C: 1.0 foot
D: 1.2 feet
410: The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon
______.
A: the amount of liquid in the compartment
B: the dimensions of the liquid surface and the vessel's
displacement
C: only the length of the compartment
D: the vertical position of the liquid in the vessel
411: Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage discharged from
vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles
from nearest land must be ground to less than ________.
A: 1"
B: 1-1/4"
C: 1-1/2"
D: 2"
412: To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you
would _______.
A: attach the bronze nozzle tip to the fog outlet of the
nozzle
B: attach an applicator to the nozzle in place of the bronze
nozzle tip
C: attach an applicator to the solid stream outlet on the
nozzle
D: simply move the handle to the vertical position on the
nozzle
413: Paint and oil lockers on small passenger vessels
must be constructed of or lined with ___________.
A: steel or equivalent material
B: fiberglass
C: sheetrock, asbestos, or other material that retards the
spread of fire
D: marine plywood
414: A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two
tone alarm signal followed immediately by the ___________.
A: distress position
B: spoken words "Mayday, Mayday, Mayday"
C: ship's name
D: ship's call letters
415: What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT be fitted with for
oily mixtures?
A: A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard
B: A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception
facility
C: A portable system to discharge the slops overboard
D: A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception
facility
416: Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is
TRUE concerning fireman's outfits?
A: If a vessel carries two outfits, they may be stored in the
same location.
B: Each fireman's outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of
an approved type.
C: Each fireman's outfit shall contain a fresh-air breathing
apparatus.
D: All of the above
417: By regulation, you MUST keep a record of the use of your
radiotelephone for at least __________.
A: one month
B: four months
C: six months
D: one year
418: Treatments of heat exhaustion consist of _____.
A: moving to a shaded area and laying down
B: bathing with rubbing alcohol
C: placing the patient in a tub of cold water
D: All of the above
419: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the drafts.
A: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-00"
B: FWD 23'-07", AFT 26'-07"
C: FWD 24'-01", AFT 26'-02"
D: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-10"
420: The most important figure in calculating the free surface
constant of a tank carrying liquids is _______________.
A: depth
B: length
C: displacement
D: breadth
421: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel
sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no
less frequently than every ______________.
A: 24 hours
B: 36 hours
C: 48 hours
D: Monday, Wednesday, and Friday
422: The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you
__________.
A: pull the nozzle handle all the way back toward the operator
B: pull the nozzle handle back to a position where the handle
is perpendicular to the plane of the nozzle
C: push the nozzle handle forward as far as it will go
D: insert a fog applicator between the fire hose and nozzle
423: When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the
holding line is _____________.
A: long enough to cause the pull to be more horizontal than
downward
B: long enough to reach bottom
C: short enough to cause the pull to be downward
D: short enough to avoid tangling
424: What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by
radiotelephone?
A: Calling all stations
B: Charlie Quebec
C: Alpha Alpha
D: Kilo
425: If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you
should pump only ____________.
A: if discharge is led to a shore tank or barge
B: during the hours of darkness
C: on the outgoing tide
D: as much as is necessary
426: A 2,000 GT tankship is required to carry _______________.
A: emergency outfits only on an international voyage
B: one oxygen breathing apparatus with enough lifeline to reach
from the open deck to any part of the tanks
C: two self-contained breathing apparati
D: two canister type gas masks if such vessel is authorized to
carry grade A, B, C or D liquids
427: Radio station logs involving communications during a
disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least
____________.
A: 4 years from date of entry
B: 3 years from date of entry
C: 2 years from date of entry
D: 1 year from date of entry
428: Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen
into cold water would _____.
A: be the best thing to try if there was no rescue in sight
B: increase survival time in the water
C: increase the rate of heat loss from the body
D: not affect the heat loss from the body
429: You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX
V of MARPOL. How many nautical miles from land must you be
to discharge ground garbage that will pass through a
one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea?
A: 3 nm
B: 6 nm
C: 12 nm
D: 25 nm
430: The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability
do NOT depend upon the __________________.
A: volume of displacement of the vessel
B: dimensions of the surface of the liquid
C: amount of liquid in slack tanks
D: specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
431: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD
28'-04", AFT 31'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as
shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final drafts.
A: FWD 29'-01", AFT 31'-04"
B: FWD 29'-05", AFT 31'-00"
C: FWD 29'-08", AFT 30'-09"
D: FWD 29'-11", AFT 30'-07"
432: One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it ______.
A: can fit any size hose
B: converts a stream of water into a fog
C: increases the amount of water reaching the fire
D: can spray two streams of water at the same time
433: If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is
carried out, they should _____________________.
A: take part
B: watch
C: go to their quarters
D: stay out of the way and do what they want
434: You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a
distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the
sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are
about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you
take?
A: Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message
B: Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast
station may acknowledge receipt
C: Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the
distress have acknowledged
D: Do not acknowledge receipt because you are too far away to
take action
435: If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency
shutdown on a tank vessel, it must ___________________.
A: stop the flow of oil at the main deck manifold
B: prevent the oil from leaving the shore facility
C: prevent the oil from siphoning through the pump
D: None of the above
436: Which item is NOT included in the fireman's outfit on a
cargo vessel?
A: Fire ax
B: Flashlight
C: rigid helmet
D: Fresh air breathing apparatus
437: On small passenger vessels bunks installed in overnight
passenger accommodation spaces _____________.
A: must be no less than 74" long and 24" wide with 24" of
clear space above
B: must not be located more than 3 high, fitted with a suitable
aid to access bunks more than 5' above deck
with suitable aids to access bunks more than 5' above deck
C: must be immediately adjacent to an aisle leading to a means
of escape
D: All of the above
438: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both
feet. You should _____.
A: immerse the feet in warm water
B: warm the feet with a heat lamp
C: warm the feet at room temperature
D: rub the feet
439: Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or
_______.
A: the paint locker
B: spaces open to the atmosphere
C: cargo holds
D: the engine room
440: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your
vessel displaces 8390 T. The 40 ton weight is on the pier
and its center is 55' to starboard of the centerline. The
head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center
of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 45' above
the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship
lists to 3.5². What is the GM with the cargo stowed?
A: 4.58 feet
B: 4.27 feet
C: 3.93 feet
D: 3.68 feet
441: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You
can reduce the possibility of capsizing by ________________.
A: moving all personnel aft
B: constantly shifting the rudder
C: rigging a sea anchor
D: moving all personnel forward and low
442: On the all-purpose nozzle, the position of the valve when
the handle is all the way forward is _____________.
A: shut
B: fog
C: solid stream
D: spray
443: What does "EPIRB" stand for?
A: Emergency Position Indicating Radar Buoy
B: Electronic Pulse Indicating Radiobeacon
C: Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon
D: None of the above
444: A call between any two ship stations on an intership working
frequency shall have a maximum duration of _______________.
A: 2 minutes
B: 3 minutes
C: 4 minutes
D: 5 minutes
445: To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on
board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must
_________________.
A: hold a valid officer's license for inspected vessels
B: be a certificated tankerman
C: be 30 years old
D: have a letter from the company stating his qualification
446: The number of fire axes required to be carried on a cargo
vessel of 14,000 GT and on an international voyage is
______.
447: According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone
Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log?
A: Distress and alarm signals transmitted or intercepted
B: Times of beginning and end of watch period
C: Routine navigational traffic
D: Daily statement about the condition of the required
radiotelephone equipment
448: Treatment of frostbite includes _____.
A: rubbing affected area with ice or snow
B: rubbing affected area briskly to restore circulation
C: wrapping area tightly in warm cloths
D: warming exposed parts rapidly
449: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement there are two slack
deep tanks of palm oil (SG .86). Each tank is 40 feet long
and 30 feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric
height due to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG
A: .27 ft
B: .48 ft
C: .57 ft
D: .74 ft
450: Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for
putting out a Class D fire?
A: Dry chemical
B: CO2
C: Foam
D: Dry powder
451: On surface type offshore drilling units, each lifeboat and
life raft must be capable of being launched to the water at
the minimum operating draft when the unit has an adverse
list up to ___________.
A: 5ø
B: 10ø
C: 15ø
D: 20ø
452: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the forward
position, the nozzle will _________________.
A: produce high-velocity fog
B: produce low-velocity fog
C: produce a straight stream
D: shut off the water
453: You must shift a weight from the upper tween deck to
the lower hold. This shift will ________.
A: make the vessel more tender
B: make the vessel stiffer
C: increase the rolling period
D: decrease the metacentric height
454: Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM
radiotelephone, normally call on channel ______.
455: Fuel for use on a vessel (300 GT or more constructed
before July 1, 1974) may be carried in independent tanks
forward of a collision bulkhead if the _________________.
A: tanks were designated, installed, or constructed for fuel
oil carrying before July 1, 1974
B: tank is 18 inches inboard of the hull structure
C: shell of the tank is of the same thickness or greater than
that of the vessel's hull
D: fuel has a flash point above 180ø F
456: On a vessel of 900 GT, the minimum number of fire axes
required is ___________.
457: According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone
Act", your radiotelephone log must contain _______________.
A: a record of all routine calls
B: a record of your transmissions only
C: the home address of the vessel's Master or owner
D: a summary of all distress calls and messages
458: Which procedure should be followed when individuals are
rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?
A: Give them brandy.
B: Get them to a hot room.
C: Immerse them in a warm bath (105øF, 40øC).
D: Cover them with an electric blanket set for maximum
temperature.
459: What is the minimum number of people required to safely
handle a 1-1/2 inch fire hose?
460: A vessel of not more than 65 feet in length must have a
collision bulkhead if it carries more than __________.
A: 6 passengers
B: 12 passengers
C: 36 passengers
D: 49 passengers
461: Which statement about transmitting distress messages by
radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
A: It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by
two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration.
B: Channel 16 (156.8 mHz) may be used for distress messages.
C: If no answer is received on the designated distress
frequencies, repeat the distress call on any frequency
available.
D: Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz.
462: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical
position and without an applicator, the all-purpose nozzle
will _______.
A: produce high-velocity fog
B: produce low-velocity fog
C: produce a straight stream
D: shut off the water
463: When water-cooled engines are installed on small
passenger vessels, the cooling system ________.
A: pump must operate whenever the engine is operating
B: must have a suitable hull strainer in the raw water intake
C: may use a closed fresh water system
D: All of the above
464: You are making a telephone call ship-to-shore using the
VHF-FM service. You can tell that the working channel is
busy if you hear ___________.
A: speech
B: signalling tones
C: a busy signal
D: All of the above
465: A cargo hose is marked with the _________________.
A: maximum working pressure
B: bursting pressure
C: safety relief valve setting
D: maximum temperature
466: Deficient oxygen content inside a chain locker can be
detected with ______________________.
A: litmus paper
B: a combustible gas indicator
C: an oxygen breathing apparatus
D: an oxygen indicator
467: Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station
aboard a vessel to which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge
Radiotelephone Act" applies?
A: On the bridge or in the wheelhouse
B: In a separate radio compartment
C: Adjacent to the main power source
D: As high as possible on the vessel
468: The most effective warming treatment for a crew member
suffering from hypothermia is _____.
A: running or jumping to create heat
B: lying in the sun
C: a warm water bath
D: mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
469: A low-velocity fog applicator attached to a 2-1/2 inch
all-purpose nozzle is required to produce a fog pattern
diameter of at LEAST _________________.
A: 8 feet (2.4 m)
B: 22 feet (6.7 m)
C: 25 feet (7.6 m)
D: 65 feet (19.8 m)
470: A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire-
extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be
_________.
A: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more
than 15%
B: labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
C: replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
D: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more
than 25%
471: How many lifeboats MUST be carried on a mobile offshore
drilling unit with more than 30 people aboard?
472: When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the
way back, it will ________________.
A: produce high-velocity fog
B: produce low-velocity fog
C: produce a straight stream
D: shut off the water
473: Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas,
or beyond 3 miles from the coastline of the Great Lakes must
have a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB that ___________.
A: is in good operating condition and is stowed near its
charger
B: will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and
automatically activate
C: is protected against all physical hazards
D: All of the above
474: You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You
should use the ___________.
A: VHF-FM service
B: coastal harbor service
C: high seas service
D: emergency broadcast service
475: The minimum bursting pressure for each cargo hose assembly
must be at least _____.
A: 300 psi
B: 400 psi
C: 500 psi
D: 600 psi
476: What type of gaging is required for a cargo of formic acid?
A: Open
B: Restricted
C: Closed
D: None of the above
477: The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge
Radiotelephone Act" is for the exclusive use of ___________.
A: the Master or person in charge of the vessel
B: a person designated by the Master
C: a person on board to pilot the vessel
D: All of the above
478: A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You
should _____________.
A: lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders
slightly raised
B: administer a liquid stimulant
C: lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet
D: attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore
consciousness
480: A tanker's mean draft is 32'-5". At this draft, the TPI is
178. The mean draft after loading 1200 tons will be
__________.
A: 33'
B: 33'-4"
C: 33'-8"
D: 33'-11"
481: How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone?
A: DUKE
B: DA VID
C: DOG
D: DELL TAH
482: The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire
fighting nozzle should always be _________________.
A: attached by a chain
B: coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion
C: painted red for identity as emergency equipment
D: stored in the clip at each fire station
483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed.
There is already 4184 tons of cargo on board with a KG of
27.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo
after loading is completed.
A: KG 25.8 feet
B: KG 26.6 feet
C: KG 27.2 feet
D: KG 28.0 feet
484: A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n)
______.
A: routine message
B: urgent message
C: distress message
D: safety message
485: The maximum allowable working pressure for each oil transfer
hose assembly must be at least _________.
A: 100 psi
B: 150 psi
C: 200 psi
D: 250 psi
486: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of:
FWD28'-04", AFT 30'-11". Cargo was loaded and discharged
as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final
drafts.
A: FWD 29'-01", AFT 30'-10"
B: FWD 29'-03", AFT 30'-08"
C: FWD 29'-07", AFT 30'-08"
D: FWD 29'-08", AFT 30'-06"
487: Which statement is TRUE concerning radiotelephones on board
towing vessels?
A: There cannot be a radiotelephone located anywhere except in
the wheelhouse.
B: The officer in charge of the wheelhouse is considered to
have the radiotelephone watch.
C: Only distress messages may be transmitted over channel 13.
D: Only the Master of the vessel is allowed to speak over the
radiotelephone.
488: A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult
victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the ___________.
A: carotid artery in the neck
B: femoral artery in the groin
C: brachial artery in the arm
D: radial artery in the wrist
489: An extinguisher with 15 lbs. of CO2 or 10 lbs. of dry
chemical is a size _________________.
490: Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated
Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
A: There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent
within the AMVER system.
B: An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render
assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant.
C: An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to
give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before
entering a U.S. port from offshore.
D: The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels
responding to calls for assistance.
491: Before starting to hoist provisions, which should be
checked?
A: Hoist rope is not kinked
B: Multiple part lines are not twisted around each other
C: The hook is centrally located over the load
D: All of the above
492: The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog
position on an all-purpose nozzle will have _______________.
A: greater range than low-velocity fog
B: lesser range than low-velocity fog
C: about the same range as low-velocity fog
D: greater range than a solid stream
493: Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?
A: They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or
broach to.
B: They can go forward and backward more easily.
C: They require less space for stowing aboard ship.
D: There is no particular reason for this.
494: A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which
prefix when sent by radiotelephone?
A: Pan-Pan (3 times)
B: Securite Securite Securite
C: TTT TTT TTT
D: No special prefix
495: No vessel may use or carry an oil transfer hose larger than
3 inches unless it meets certain requirements. Which of the
following is NOT among those requirements?
A: Metallic reinforcement
B: A bursting pressure greater than 600 psi
C: A working pressure greater than 150 psi
D: Identification markings
496: The lifeboat releasing gear lever should be marked with the
words ____________.
A: "DANGER, DO NOT TOUCH"
B: "DANGER, BOAT MAY DROP"
C: "DANGER, LEVER RELEASES BOAT"
D: "DANGER, LEVER DROPS BOAT"
497: The Coast Guard broadcasts routine weather reports on
channels _________.
A: 13 or 14
B: 16 or 17
C: 21A or 22A
D: 44 or 45
498: An unconscious person should NOT be _____________.
A: placed in a position with the head lower than the body
B: given an inhalation stimulant
C: given something to drink
D: treated for injuries until conscious
499: In setting the valves on a steam-smothering system on a tank
vessel, the master control valve to cargo tanks should be
___________________.
A: open and individual tank valves open
B: open and the individual tank valves closed
C: closed and the individual tank valves closed
D: closed and the individual tank valves open
500: Safety shackles are fitted with ________________.
A: a threaded bolt
B: a round pin, with a cotter pin
C: a threaded bolt, locknuts, and cotter pins
D: round pins and locknuts
501: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the amount of liquid loading required in the
double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 1292 tons
B: 1248 tons
C: 1211 tons
D: 1172 tons
502: Penetrations and openings in watertight bulkheads in a small
passenger vessel less than 100 gross tons must ____________.
A: be kept as high and as far inboard as possible
B: not contain sluice valves that allow water to flow freely
from one watertight compartment to another
C: have some means to make them watertight
D: All of the above
503: Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Lifeboat No. 2 is
located ______________.
A: forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the starboard side
B: forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the port side
C: aft of lifeboat No. 1 on the starboard side
D: All of the above
504: If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the
safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word
__________.
A: Mayday
B: Pan-pan
C: Securite
D: Safety
505: Which vessel is NOT required to have a Pollution Placard
posted on board?
A: 15-foot passenger vessel
B: 75-foot towing vessel
C: 50-foot cabin cruiser used for pleasure only
D: 150-foot unmanned tank barge
506: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be
determined by ___________________.
A: examining the Certificate of Inspection
B: examining the plate on the outside of the raft container
C: referring to the station bill
D: referring to the shipping articles
507: While underway, if you are required to have a
radiotelephone, you must maintain a continuous listening
watch on channel _____.
A: 6 (156.3 MHz)
B: 12 (156.6 MHz)
C: 14 (156.7 MHz)
D: 16 (156.8 MHz)
508: Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has
received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?
A: Give a stimulant.
B: Elevate his head.
C: Stop severe bleeding.
D: Treat for shock.
509: Placing a lashing across a hook to prevent a fitting from
slipping out of the hook is called ____________________.
A: faking
B: flemishing down
C: mousing
D: worming
510: A new crew member, who has not received any safety
instructions or participated in any drills, reports on
board. The Master must provide a safety orientation
__________________.
A: within one week
B: within 24 hours
C: on reporting day if it occurs within normal work hours
D: before sailing
511: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the amount of liquid loading required in the
double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 696 tons
B: 520 tons
C: 473 tons
D: 444 tons
512: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD
28'-08", AFT 29'-05". Cargo was loaded and discharged as
shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final drafts.
A: FWD 28'-10", AFT 29'-04"
B: FWD 29'-02", AFT 29'-07"
C: FWD 29'-04", AFT 29'-04"
D: FWD 29'-05", AFT 29'-08"
513: Number 3 lifeboat would be ___________.
A: the forward boat on the starboard side
B: behind boat number 1 on the port side
C: behind boat number 1 on the starboard side
D: behind boat number 2 on the port side
514: You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken
three times. This indicates that ___________.
A: a message about the safety of navigation will follow
B: a message of an urgent nature about the safety of a ship
will follow
C: the sender is in distress and requests immediate assistance
D: you should secure your radiotelephone
515: Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled
"Discharge of Oil Prohibited"?
A: It is required on all vessels.
B: It may be located in a conspicuous place in the wheelhouse.
C: It may be located at the bilge and ballast pump control
station.
D: All of the above
516: Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and
is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?
A: Carbon dioxide
B: Hydrogen sulfide
C: Carbon monoxide
D: Nitric oxide
517: The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is
_______.
A: 156.8 MHz (channel 16)
B: 156.7 MHz (channel 14)
C: 156.65 MHz (channel 13)
D: 156.6 MHz (channel 12)
518: A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY
wash the eye with ________.
A: boric acid solution
B: water
C: baking soda solution
D: ammonia
519: A vessel must have at least two fireman's outfits aboard if
she ___________.
A: is documented
B: is over 100 gross tons
C: is under foreign articles
D: has more than 49 people aboard
520: What is the displacement of a barge which measures 85' x 46'
x 13' and is floating in salt water with a draft of ten
feet?
A: 1117 tons
B: 1452 tons
C: 500 tons
D: 17.5 tons
521: On a vessel of 6,000 tons displacement there are two slack
tanks of carbon tetrachloride (SG 1.6). Each tank is 40 feet
long and 25 feet wide. What is the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface with the vessel in
sea water (SG 1.025)?
A: .39 ft
B: .77 ft
C: .88 ft
D: .95 ft
522: A spanner is a ___________________.
A: cross connection line between two main fire lines
B: special wrench for tightening couplings in a fire hose line
C: tackle rigged to support a fire hose
D: None of the above
523: The bottom row of plating next to the keel of a lifeboat is
known as the _____________.
A: sheer strake
B: bilge strake
C: garboard strake
D: keel rib
524: The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with
safety of a person would be prefixed by the word _________.
A: Mayday
B: Pan
C: Safety
D: Interco
525: What would you consult to determine the number of persons
required on duty while loading a cargo of leaded gasoline on
your tanker?
A: 46 CFR Part 15 (Manning)
B: Certificate of Inspection
C: Oil Transfer Procedures Manual
D: IOPP Certificate
526: Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient
fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?
527: The VHF radiotelephone frequency designated to be used only
to transmit or receive information pertaining to the safe
navigation of a vessel is _____.
A: 156.8 MHz (channel 16)
B: 156.7 MHz (channel 14)
C: 156.65 MHz (channel 13)
D: 156.6 MHz (channel 12)
528: If a person gets something in his or her eye and you see
that it is not embedded, you can _____.
A: get them to rub their eye until the object is gone
B: remove it with a match or toothpick
C: remove it with a piece of dry sterile cotton
D: remove it with a moist, cotton-tipped applicator
529: You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?
A: Up to five gallons of a flammable liquid may be stowed in
the engine room.
B: All stores of line, rags, linens and other similar type
stores must be certified by UL as being fire retardant.
C: Cylinders containing compressed gasses must be constructed
and tested in accordance with the Bureau of Standards.
D: All distress flares when received must be stored in the
portable magazine chest.
530: The TPI curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's
plans, gives the number of tons ____________.
A: necessary to change the angle of list 1ø at a given draft
B: necessary to change trim 1 inch at a given draft
C: pressure per square inch on the vessel's hull at a given
draft
D: necessary to further immerse the vessel 1 inch at a given
draft
531: A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by _____.
A: reading the gage pressure
B: weighing the extinguisher
C: discharging a small amount of CO2
D: seeing if the seal has been broken
532: Fire hose should be washed with _________________.
A: salt water and a wire brush
B: caustic soap
C: mild soap and fresh water
D: a holystone
533: What is the purpose of limber holes?
A: To allow for air circulation
B: To allow for stress and strain in rough waters
C: To allow water in the boat to drain overboard
D: To allow water in the bilge to get to the boat drain
534: Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you
do not require immediate assistance. You would preface a
message advising other vessels of your situation with _____.
A: Mayday-Mayday-Mayday
B: Pan-Pan (3 times)
C: Securite-Securite-Securite
D: SOS-SOS-SOS
535: What is NOT required to be contained in the oil transfer
procedures?
A: A line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping
B: The number of persons on duty during oil transfer
operations
C: Any special procedures for topping off tanks
D: The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the
vessel
536: A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of
attaining a speed of at least _____________.
A: 3 knots in smooth water
B: 6 knots in smooth water
C: 3 knots in rough water
D: 6 knots in rough water
537: What frequency has the FCC designated for the use of
bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone communications?
A: 156.275 MHz channel 65
B: 156.650 MHz channel 13
C: 157.000 MHz channel 28
D: 157.000 MHz channel 20
538: A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial
obstruction of the airway. An observer should ___________.
A: perform the Heimlich maneuver
B: immediately start CPR
C: give back blows and something to drink
D: allow the person to continue coughing and dislodge the
obstruction on his own
539: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water on tank tops. The hold is 50 feet
long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height
is _______.
A: 1.2 feet
B: 1.1 feet
C: 1.3 feet
D: 1.5 feet
540: Of the following, the most important consideration for a
tank vessel is ________.
A: GM
B: the vertical center of gravity
C: the longitudinal center of gravity
D: the stress on the hull
541: The signal "AS" when used in signaling by the International
Code of Signals means "________________".
A: Over
B: Finished with transmission
C: Wait
D: Repeat this signal
542: Before inserting a low-velocity fog applicator into an
all-purpose nozzle, you must ____. (See illustration D004SA)
A: install the high-velocity nozzle tip
B: move the handle to position 2
C: move the handle to position 1
D: remove the high-velocity nozzle tip
543: Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic
corrosion (the aluminum being eaten away). In working
around boats of aluminum you must be very careful _______.
A: to keep the boats covered at all times
B: not to leave steel or iron tools lying in or near these
boats
C: to keep an electric charge on the hull at all times
D: to rinse these boats regularly with salt water
544: In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN
indicates that ___________.
A: a ship is threatened by grave and imminent danger and
requests immediate assistance
B: a calling station has an urgent message about the safety of
a person
C: the message following the prefix will be about the safety of
navigation
D: the message following is a meteorological warning
545: The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil
are NOT required to contain _______________.
A: the name of each person designated as the person in charge
of transfer
B: a line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping
C: special procedures for topping off tanks
D: a description of the deck discharge containment system
546: Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?
A: It is propelled by engine or hand-propelling gear.
B: It has a sufficient fuel capacity, if motorized, for 24
hours of operation.
C: It must be able to maintain a loaded speed of 6 knots.
D: All of the above
547: Channel 13 (156.65 MHz), the designated bridge-to-bridge
channel, may NOT be used to _____.
A: exchange navigational information between vessels
B: exchange navigational information between a vessel and a
shore station
C: conduct necessary tests
D: exchange operating schedules with company dispatcher
548: A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn
blue. You should _______________.
A: perform the Heimlich maneuver
B: make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood
to the brain
C: immediately administer CPR
D: do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious
549: If a vessel takes a sudden, severe list or trim from an
unknown cause, you should FIRST _________________.
A: determine the cause before taking countermeasures
B: assume the shift is due to off-center loading
C: counterflood
D: assume the cause is environmental forces
550: The normal tendency for a loaded tanker is to ____________.
A: hog
B: sag
C: have a permanent list
D: be very tender
551: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks,
each 20 ft. wide by 60 ft. long. Each tank is filled with
saltwater below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's
displacement is 7,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due
to free surface effect?
A: .29 feet
B: .33 feet
C: .38 feet
D: .42 feet
552: When water pressure of 100 psi is used in conjunction with
an inline proportioner for the production of the mechanical
foam, a 5-gallon can of liquid foam will last _____________.
A: 1-1/2 minutes
B: 2-1/2 minutes
C: 5 minutes
D: 15 minutes
553: Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?
A: They must be released by freeing a safety shackle.
B: They should not be released until the boat is in lowering
position.
C: They may be adjusted by a turnbuckle.
D: They are normally used only with radial davits.
554: When using the International Code of Signals to communicate,
the end of a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by the
signal ____________.
555: The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be
posted ___.
A: in the pilothouse
B: in the officer's lounge
C: in the upper pumproom flat
D: where they can be easily seen or readily available
556: All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type life rafts shall
be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least
once every _______.
A: 6 months
B: year
C: 18 months
D: two years
557: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"
the frequency for bridge-to-bridge communications is 156.65
MHz or channel ____.
558: A small passenger vessel operating on exposed or
partiallly protected waters may not have a port
light below the weather deck unless ___________.
A: its sill is at least 30 inches above the deepest
load waterline
B: it opens and has a solid, inside, hinged cover
C: it is made of thick transparent plastic
D: it is sealed shut
559: The maximum draft of the SS AMERICAN MARINER cannot exceed
28'-08" in order to cross a bar. The present drafts are:
FWD 28'-00", AFT 29'-00". Use the white pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the minimum
amount of sea water to ballast the forepeak to achieve this
condition.
A: 44.4 tons
B: 58.0 tons
C: 76.7 tons
D: 116.0 tons
560: On small passenger vessels each inlet or discharge pipe
penetrating the hull less than six inches above the
deepest load waterline _________.
A: must have a check valve to prevent water from entering
B: except for engine exhausts must have a means to prevent
water from entering the vessel if the pipe fails
C: must be fitted with a gate valve
D: must be sealed
561: The 12-foot low-velocity fog applicator ________________.
A: has a spray pattern 12 feet in diameter
B: can be used in conjunction with both 1-1/2 inch and 2-1/2
inch all-purpose nozzles
C: has a 90ø bend at its discharge end
D: has a screw thread end which connects to the all-purpose
nozzle
562: One gallon of high expansion foam solution will produce
____.
A: 8 to 10 gallons of foam
B: 25 to 50 gallons of foam
C: 100 to 200 gallons of foam
D: 500 to 1000 gallons of foam
563: Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away
from a moving ship?
A: The falls
B: Sea painter
C: Boat painter
D: Boat hook
564: If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa
Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, you
should ____.
A: report to the caller
B: repeat your last transmission
C: continue since he received your last transmission
D: end the transmission
565: Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by
________.
A: driving wooden plugs into the vents
B: closing the lids on the vents
C: plugging the scuppers
D: plugging the sounding pipes
566: Lifeboats must be lowered into the water at least once every
_________________.
A: 3 months
B: 8 months
C: year
D: 2 years
567: On small passenger vessels if an item of lifesaving
equipment is not required but is installed __________.
A: both the equipment and its installation must be approved by
the Commandant
B: it must be removed from the vessel as excess equipment
C: it may remain aboard the vessel as excess equipment
regardless of its condition
D: it must be destroyed in the presence of a marine inspector
568: On a small passenger vessel, if an inlet or discharge pipe
is not accessible, its shut off valve ____________.
A: must be operable from the weather deck
B: may be operable from any accessible location above the
bulkhead deck
C: must be labelled at its operating point to show its
identity and direction of closing
D: All of the above
569: A shaft alley divides a vessel's cargo hold into two tanks,
each 25 ft. wide by 50 ft. long. Each tank is filled with
salt water below the level of the shaft alley. The vessel's
displacement is 6,000 tons. What is the reduction in GM due
to free surface effect?
A: .56 foot
B: .58 foot
C: .62 foot
D: .66 foot
570: On a vessel of 5,000 tons displacement there are two slack
tanks of acid (SG 1.8). Each tank is 30 feet long and 20
feet wide. What is the reduction in metacentric height due
to free surface with the vessel in sea water (SG 1.025)?
A: .11 ft
B: .21 ft
C: .40 ft
D: .82 ft
571: To increase the extent of flooding your vessel can suffer
without sinking, you could _______________________.
A: ballast the vessel
B: increase reserve buoyancy
C: lower the center of gravity
D: raise the center of gravity
572: Your tankship has 40 gallons of 6% foam concentrate
aboard. Approximately how much foam solution can be produced
from this supply?
A: 200 gallons
B: 420 gallons
C: 667 gallons
D: 986 gallons
573: The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led ______________.
A: forward and outside of all obstructions
B: forward and inside of all obstructions
C: up and down from the main deck
D: to the foremost point on the ship
574: You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the
International Code of Signals. He responds with the words
"Alpha Sierra". This indicates that _____________.
A: he cannot accept traffic immediately
B: you should proceed with your message
C: you should send your message in International Code
D: you should send your message in plain language
575: Pollution regulations require that each scupper in an
enclosed deck area have a _____________________.
A: wooden plug
B: soft rubber plug
C: two-piece soft patch
D: mechanical means of closing
576: Each lifeboat must be lowered and maneuvered in the water at
least once every ________________.
A: 2 months
B: 3 months
C: 4 months
D: 5 months
577: All towing vessels of 26 feet or longer while navigating are
required to carry which item?
A: At least two lifeboats
B: A radiotelephone
C: A loran receiver
D: None of the above
578: When fighting fires in spaces containing bottles of LPG
(liquefied petroleum gas), you should __________________.
A: attempt to isolate the fire from the LPG
B: cool the bottles or remove them from the fire area
C: see that the valves on all LPG bottles are closed
D: place insulating material over the bottles
579: The letter R followed by one or more numbers indicates
_______________.
A: a vessel's identity
B: bearing
C: visibility
D: distance
580: Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the __________.
A: bulwark
B: deck line
C: gunwale bar
D: sheer strake
581: You are ordering ships' stores that are NOT consumer
commodities. Which statement is TRUE?
A: All flammable liquids must be stowed in the paint locker
or specially constructed integral tanks.
B: The label of a hazardous ships' store must include
instructions for safe stowage.
C: Replacement CO2 cylinders for the fixed fire fighting system
must have been tested within 8 years of receipt.
D: Cartridges for the line throwing appliance must be stored in
the portable magazine chest after receipt.
582: Extra chemicals for producing chemical foam should be stored
________.
A: in a freezer
B: in a cool dry place
C: at a temperature not less than 80ø F
D: in open bins
583: The minimum length of a boat painter for a lifeboat in ocean
service is _____________.
A: 60 fathoms
B: the distance from the main deck to the light waterline
C: twice the distance from the main deck to the light waterline
or 50 feet whichever is greater
D: two times the distance from the boat deck to the light
waterline or 50 feet whichever is greater
584: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of:
FWD28'-08", AFT 29'-05". Cargo was loaded and discharged
as indicated. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the final
drafts.
A: FWD 28'-09", AFT 29'-00"
B: FWD 28'-07", AFT 29'-01"
C: FWD 28'-05", AFT 29'-08"
D: FWD 28'-04", AFT 29'-05"
585: How long must a "Declaration of Inspection" be kept on
board?
A: One week
B: Two weeks
C: One month
D: Three months
586: On small passenger vessels, which material must not be used
in a valve or fitting for a hull penetration?
A: Cast bronze
B: Plastic
C: Cast iron
D: Stainless steel
587: Which vessel is NOT required to have a radiotelephone?
A: A 34-foot vessel engaged in towing
B: A dredge operating in a channel
C: A vessel of 100 GT carrying 50 passengers for hire
D: A 12-meter private yacht
588: At night while the ship is tied up to the dock, a fire
breaks out in a cargo hatch. After sounding the alarm, what
should the person on watch do?
A: Begin fighting the fire immediately.
B: Await further orders from the Master.
C: Let go the lines to let the vessel drift to an anchorage.
D: Send a person to summon the shore authorities.
589: Fires are grouped into what categories?
A: Class A, B, C, and D
B: Type 1, 2, 3, and 4
C: Combustible solids, liquids, and gases
D: Flammable solids, liquids, and gases
590: The distance between the waterline of a vessel and the main
deck is called _________________.
A: draft
B: freeboard
C: buoyancy
D: camber
591: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of The Stability data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 2.82 feet
B: 2.97 feet
C: 3.15 feet
D: 3.24 feet
592: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful
in combating a fire in ___________________.
A: solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber
B: flammable liquids
C: a piece of electrical equipment
D: combustible metallic solids
593: The sea painter is secured in the lifeboat by _____________.
A: a turn around a forward thwart with a toggle pin thru the
eye
B: a knot around a thwart
C: an eye splice placed over one of the hooks of the releasing
gear
D: All of the above
595: How long shall the operator of a vessel employed in the
transferring of oil to other vessels keep the Declaration of
Inspection of those transfers?
A: 1 week from date of signature
B: 2 weeks from date of signature
C: 1 month from date of signature
D: 6 months from date of signature
596: The Master of a cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible
that each lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is
lowered to the water with crew and maneuvered at least once
every _____________.
A: week
B: month
C: three months
D: year
597: The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to
__________.
A: every towing vessel of 16 feet or over in length while
navigating
B: every vessel of 50 GT and upward, carrying one or more
persons for hire
C: all aircraft operating on the water
D: every power-driven vessel of 20 meters and upward while
navigating
598: A fire must be ventilated ______.
A: when using an indirect attack on the fire such as flooding
with water
B: to prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the
firefighters
C: to minimize heat buildup in adjacent compartments
D: if compressed gas cylinders are stowed in the compartment on
fire
599: When starting CPR on a drowning victim, you should ________.
A: start chest compressions before the victim is removed from
the water
B: drain water from the lungs before ventilating
C: begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations in the water if possible
D: do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting
600: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a
tremendous effect on its _______________.
A: initial stability
B: free surface
C: stability at large angles of inclination
D: permeability
601: Under the International Code, the signal "CQ" is NOT used
for signalling by _______________.
A: flag hoist
B: radiotelephony
C: radiotelegraphy
D: flashing light
602: What does "EPIRB" stand for?
A: Emergency Position Indicating Radar Buoy
B: Electronic Pulse Indicating Radiobeacon
C: Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon
D: None of the above
603: The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a
lifeboat should _________________.
A: be fitted at the end with an approved safety shackle
B: have a long eye splice at the end, and a shackle and pin
should be attached to the painter with a lanyard
C: have a long eye splice at the end, and a hardwood toggle
should be attached to the thwart with a lanyard
D: be fitted with a swivel and quick-releasing pelican hook
604: To prevent loss of stability from free communication
flooding you should ____________.
A: close the cross-connection valve between the off-center
tanks
B: completely flood high center tanks
C: ballast double bottom wing tanks
D: close any opening to the sea in an off-center tank
605: The owner of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations
shall keep a written record available for inspection by the
Captain of the Port, of ________.
A: the name of each person currently designated as a person in
charge
B: the date and result of the most recent test on the system
relief valves
C: the date and location of each inspection of the bilge
overboard discharge valves
D: All of the above
606: When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a
vessel the lead sheaves to the drums shall be located to
provide fleet angles of not more than _________________.
A: 4ø
B: 8ø
C: 12ø
D: 16ø
607: The "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies to
which towboat?
A: A 100 GT towboat, 24 feet in length
B: A 90-foot towboat tied to the pier
C: A 60-foot towboat towing by pushing ahead
D: A 400 GT towboat anchored
608: A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best
extinguished by __________________.
A: cooling the gas below the ignition point
B: cutting off the supply of oxygen
C: stopping the flow of gas
D: interrupting the chain reaction
609: Which small passenger vessel(s) is/are NOT required to
carry a Category 1 406 MHz EPIRB?
A: A coastwise vesssel whose route does not take it more than
three miles from shore
B: A vessel operating on lakes, bays, sounds, and rivers
C: A vessel operating within three miles from the coastline of
the Great Lakes
D: All of the above
610: The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a
tremendous effect on its ____________.
A: initial stability
B: free surface
C: permeability
D: stability at large angles of inclination
611: The maximum mean draft to which a vessel may be safely
loaded is called ______.
A: mean draft
B: calculated draft
C: deep draft
D: load line draft
612: The service life of distress signals must be not more than
________________.
A: forty-two months from the date of manufacture
B: six months from the date of the last inspection
C: 12 months from the date of manufacture
D: three years from the date of purchase
613: The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.
A: shorter than the rowing oars
B: the same length as the rowing oars
C: longer than the rowing oars
D: unrelated to the length of the rowing oars
614: Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. There is ashort
rolling period around the angle of list. The portside
freeboard is reduced to 1 foot. There is no trim andthe
weather is calm. You should FIRST _____.
A: press up a slack double bottom tank on the port side
B: fill an empty centerline double bottom tank
C: pump out a slack marine portable tank located on the
portside amidships
D: jettison the anchors and anchor cables
615: The owner or operator of each vessel subject to the
pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written
records of _______.
A: the name of each person designated as a person in charge
B: the date and results of the most recent equipment inspection
C: cargoes carried and dates delivered, including destinations
D: dates and locations of valve inspections
616: Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the
base of the groove equal to at least
_______________________.
A: 6 times the diameter of the wire rope
B: 8 times the diameter of the wire rope
C: 12 times the diameter of the wire rope
D: 16 times the diameter of the wire rope
617: For the purposes of distress signalling, small passenger
vessels that operate on runs of more than 30 minutes
duration on lakes, bays and sounds, and river routes must
carry _______.
A: A radiotelephone
B: Three hand red flare distress signals, and three hand
orange smoke distress signals
C: A "Very" pistol and flare kit
D: An approved noise-making device
618: You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1
hatch. Which action should you take FIRST?
A: Advise the Chief Mate and Master.
B: Release carbon dioxide into the hatch.
C: Sound the general alarm.
D: Lead a fire hose to the hatch.
619: A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of
______.
A: contaminating food with extinguishing agent
B: spreading through the engineering space
C: causing loss of stability
D: a grease fire in the ventilation system
620: A vessel's LCG is determined by _________________.
A: dividing the total longitudinal moment summations by
displacement
B: dividing the total vertical moment summations by
displacement
C: multiplying the MT1 by the longitudinal moments
D: subtracting LCF from LCB
621: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine about
to surface because of an emergency on board is __________.
A: white
B: green
C: yellow
D: red
622: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after
capsizing IF the _________.
A: lower ballast tanks are filled with water
B: passengers are strapped to their seats
C: sea anchor is deployed to windward
D: fuel tanks are not less than half full
623: How many lifeboats MUST be carried on a mobile offshore
drilling unit with more than 30 people aboard?
624: Each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats shall be tested _______.
A: weekly
B: every 2 weeks
C: monthly
D: every 3 months
625: When the Captain of the Port or Officer in Charge, Marine
Inspection issues an order of suspension to the operator of
a vessel concerning oil transfer operations, it ___________.
A: shall be effective immediately
B: includes a statement of each condition requiring immediate
action to prevent discharge of oil
C: must be renewed every 24 hours to remain in effect
D: All of the above
627: Distress flares and smoke signals for small passenger
vessels _________.
A: are not required aboard vessels on runs of less than 30
minutes duration
B: must be Coast Guard approved and stowed in a portable,
watertight container
C: must be marked with an expiration date not more than 42
months from the date of manufacture
D: All of the above
628: The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on
a tanker would be ________________.
A: in the midships house
B: at the main deck manifold
C: at the vent header
D: in the pumproom
629: Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial
respiration is(are) _____.
A: vomiting
B: blue color and lack of breathing
C: irregular breathing
D: unconsciousness
630: Reserve buoyancy is _______________.
A: also called GM
B: the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is
enclosed and watertight
C: affected by the number of transverse watertight bulkheads
D: the watertight portion of a vessel above the waterline
631: You are at the helm of a ketch-rigged sailing vessel under
sail on the starboard tack, close hauled, with all
appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are
instructed to "bear off quickly". To utilize your sails to
assist with the turn, you should _______________.
A: slack the mizzen sheet
B: trim the mizzen vang
C: slack the jib sheet
D: trim the main outhaul
632: Portable foam type fire extinguishers are most effective
on _______.
A: mattress fires
B: oil fires
C: wood fires
D: All of the above
633: A sweep oar is an oar that is _________.
A: generally shorter than the others and is used to steer with
B: is longer than the others and is used as the stroke oar
C: is raised in the bow of the boat for the steersman to steer
by
D: longer than the others used for steering
634: You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using
hoses and salt water. Stability may be reduced because of
_______________.
A: progressive downflooding
B: reduction of water in the storage tanks
C: increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric
height
D: reduction of KG to the minimum allowable
635: The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge
at the facility must hold a meeting before starting the
transfer of oil. Who must decide to start the transfer?
A: The person in charge on the vessel
B: The person in charge at the facility
C: Both persons in charge
D: The person in charge of either place that is doing the
pumping
636: What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of
lifeboats on cargo vessels?
A: Each lifeboat must have a launching appliance.
B: Launching appliances must be of the gravity type.
C: There may not be more than two launching appliances on the
same deck.
D: All of the above
637: The date and time kept in the radiotelephone log shall
commence at _____.
A: midnight
B: noon
C: beginning of the watch
D: any convenient time
638: You are on watch at sea, at night, when the ordinary seaman
reports a fire in number five upper tween deck. Which of the
following should NOT be done immediately?
A: Sound the general alarm
B: Secure mechanical cargo hold ventilation
C: Call for water on deck
D: Release carbon dioxide into the affected compartment
639: A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each
hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the
______________.
A: fire hose might be damaged by cargo operations
B: vessel is in port
C: fire-main system is not charged
D: fire pumps are used for purposes other than supplying water
to the fire main
640: The volume of watertight spaces of a vessel above its
waterline is the vessel's _______________.
A: free surface
B: marginal stability
C: reserve buoyancy
D: freeboard
641: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 1.76 feet
B: 1.97 feet
C: 2.21 feet
D: 2.32 feet
642: As an extinguishing agent, foam _____.
A: conducts electricity
B: should be directed at the base of the fire
C: is most effective on burning gases which are flowing
D: extinguishes by cooling oil fires below ignition temperature
643: The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the
_________.
A: bumpkin oar
B: stroke oar
C: sweep oar
D: becket oar
644: The difference between the forward and aft drafts is ______.
A: list
B: heel
C: trim
D: flotation
645: A tug should not come alongside a tank vessel in way of its
cargo tanks while it is loading grade A, B, or C cargo
without the permission of the ______.
A: the cognizant OCMI
B: superintendent of the shoreside facility
C: local fire department
D: officer in charge of the vessel which is loading
647: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", the
maximum power of all transmitters used shall be not more
than ________.
A: 25 watts
B: 50 watts
C: 75 watts
D: 100 watts
648: Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessels are
required to be what color?
A: White
B: White or international orange
C: Orange
D: Any highly visible color easily seen from the air
649: The lifeline of a life float or buoyant apparatus
shall____________.
A: be at least 3/8 inch diameter and properly secured around
the sides and ends of the device
B: be festooned in bights not longer than three feet long
C: have a seine float in each bight unless the line is an
inherently buoyant material
D: All of the above
650: Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?
A: Metacentric height
B: Righting moment
C: Rolling period
D: Freeboard
651: Small passenger vessels not limited to service during
daylight hours must carry __________.
A: a radar maintained in good operating condition
B: a collision bulkhead
C: a white 20 point anchor light
D: at least one floating water light
652: How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
A: By cooling the oil below the ignition temperature
B: By removing the fuel source from the fire
C: By excluding the oxygen from the fire
D: By increasing the weight of the oil
653: A tank vessel transferring non-flammable hazardous cargo in
bulk must display warning signs. These signs must ________.
A: be visible from both sides and from forward and aft
B: indicate "NO SMOKING"
C: be displayed only while transferring cargo and fast to a
dock
D: use black lettering on a white background
654: Which of the following statements about transmitting
distress messages by radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
A: Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz.
B: Channel 16 (156.8 mHz) may be used for distress messages.
C: If no answer is received on the designated distress
frequencies, repeat the distress call on any frequency
available.
D: It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by
two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration.
655: The spread of fire is NOT prevented by _____________.
A: shutting off the oxygen supply
B: cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire
C: removing combustibles from the endangered area
D: removing smoke and toxic gases by ensuring adequate
ventilation
656: The governor brake shall be capable of controlling the speed
of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat with its complement
of persons on board at _________________.
A: safe speed only specified
B: not less than 120 feet per minute
C: not more than 120 feet per minute
D: not more than 90 feet per minute
657: What is the normal operating power for ship-to-ship
communications on channel 13?
A: 1 watt or less
B: 5 watts
C: 10 watts
D: 20 watts
658: The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers
restrained by fusible links. Which statement is TRUE?
A: A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is
extinguished and reset the damper.
B: Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for
certification.
C: Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to
them.
D: Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated.
659: A vessel carries three slack tanks of gasoline (SG .68).
The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons. Each tank is 50
ft. long and 20 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due
to free surface with the vessel floating in sea water
(SG 1.026)?
A: .20 feet
B: .24 feet
C: .28 feet
D: .30 feet
660: Reserve buoyancy is _________________.
A: the watertight part of a vessel above the waterline
B: the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is
enclosed and watertight
C: transverse watertight bulkheads
D: a measure of metacentric height
661: The Master of a fishing vessel must ensure that each crew
member participates in at least one fire drill every
________________.
A: day
B: week
C: month
D: 3 months
662: Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by _________________.
A: cooling
B: chemical action
C: smothering
D: inerting the air
663: Stretchers are fitted in lifeboats to provide a __________.
A: place for people to lie down
B: means for rigging the sail
C: place for rowers to brace their feet
D: suitable means for water to drain below the footings
664: Your vessel is in distress and you have made radiotelephone
contact with a U.S. Coast Guard vessel. The Coast Guard
vessel requests that you give him a long count. This
indicates that _______________.
A: your radio transmitter is not working properly
B: the Coast Guard vessel is testing its receiver
C: the Coast Guard vessel is taking a radio direction finder
bearing on your vessel
D: the Coast Guard vessel is requesting your position in
latitude and longitude
665: Who may serve as the "person in charge" of loading and
discharge operations aboard a tankship?
A: Only licensed officers
B: Certificated tankerman
C: The pumpman
D: The bosun
667: Failure to comply with, or enforce, the provisions of the
"Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" can result in
a ______.
A: $500 civil penalty charged against the person in charge
of the vessel
B: $1500 civil penalty charged against the person in
charge of the vessel
C: $500 criminal penalty charged against the Master
D: $1500 criminal penalty charged against the Master
668: The midships house of your break bulk ship is constructed
with an interior stairtower from the main deck to the
bridge. Under what circumstances may the doors from each
deck to the stairtower be kept open when underway?
A: They are to be kept closed at all times.
B: They may be kept open if the ventilation or air conditioning
system is shut down.
C: They may be kept open if they can be automatically closed
from the bridge.
D: They can be kept open if the station bill has personnel
designated to close them in case of fire.
669: You are ordering ships' stores. Which statement is TRUE?
A: Aerosol cans of engine starting fluid must be stowed in
either the paint locker or portable magazine after receipt.
B: Drugs and medicines must be stowed in accordance with the
directives of the Food and Drug Administration.
C: Flammable ship's stores must be certified for use on
inspected vessels by Underwriter's Laboratories.
D: Properly labeled consumer commodities need not be labeled
in accordance with Title 46 CFR.
670: Which action will affect the trim of a vessel?
A: Moving high weights lower
B: Adding weight at the tipping center
C: Moving a weight forward
D: All of the above
671: When signaling a course using the International Code of
Signals, the signal _____________.
A: must be followed by "T", "M" or "C" to indicate if it is
true, magnetic or compass
B: should be preceded by the letters CSE
C: should include the compass deviation if a compass course is
signalled
D: always indicates a true course unless indicated otherwise
in the message
672: A foam-type portable fire extinguisher is most useful in
fighting a fire in _____________.
A: generators
B: oil drums
C: the bridge controls
D: combustible metals
673: The grab rail of a metal lifeboat is normally located _____.
A: along the turn of the bilge
B: along each side of the keel
C: near the top of the gunwale
D: at the bow and at the stern
674: A distress frequency used on radiotelephone is ____________.
A: 400 kilohertz
B: 2182 kilohertz
C: 2728 kilohertz
D: 8221 kilohertz
675: Who completes the Declaration of Inspection before loading a
tank vessel?
A: The U.S. Coast Guard
B: The manager of the shore facility
C: The person(s) designated in-charge
D: The American Bureau of Shipping
676: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat
on the starboard side is designated as boat number _______.
A: 2
B: 2 STARBOARD
C: 3
D: 4
677: A vessel which violates the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge
Radiotelephone Act" may be fined up to _________.
A: $100
B: $500
C: $1000
D: $1500
678: Fire may be spread by which means?
A: Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces
B: Direct radiation
C: Convection
D: All of the above
679: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT
_____________.
A: heat
B: oxygen
C: electricity
D: fuel
680: The ship's tanks most effective for trimming are the ______.
A: deeps
B: domestics
C: peaks
D: settlers
681: Size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered ________.
A: hand portable
B: all purpose
C: fixed extinguishers
D: semi-portable
682: How are lifelines attached to a life float?
A: By serving
B: By splicing one end of the line around the apparatus
C: Securely attached around the outside in bights no
longer than three feet
D: With an approved safety hook or shackle
683: The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to __________.
A: make the boat float higher
B: provide a stowage place for provisions
C: add strength to the boat
D: keep the boat afloat if flooded
684: The Coast Guard emergency radiotelephone frequency is
______.
A: 2132 kilohertz
B: 2182 kilohertz
C: 2670 kilohertz
D: 2750 kilohertz
685: The operator of each vessel engaged in a vessel-to-vessel
oil transfer operation must keep a signed copy of the
declaration of inspection for ___________.
A: 10 days
B: 1 month
C: 6 months
D: 1 year
686: You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or
fire in fuel tanks ___________.
A: during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom
B: during fueling when the fuel strikes fuel already in the
tank
C: when underway as the fuel is moved by wave action
D: shortly after fueling when fuel vapors gather
687: The Master or person in charge of a vessel subject to the
"Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" who fails to
comply with the Act or the regulations thereunder may be
fined not more than _______.
A: $2,000
B: $1,500
C: $1,000
D: $500
688: Which may ignite fuel vapors?
A: Static electricity
B: An open and running motor
C: Loose wiring
D: All of the above
689: After a person has been revived by artificial respiration,
he should be _____.
A: walked around until he is back to normal
B: given several shots of whiskey
C: kept lying down and warm
D: allowed to do as he wishes
690: Those ship's tanks that are particularly important for
trimming the ship are the __________.
A: domestics
B: settlers
C: deeps
D: peaks
691: According to the Code of Federal Regulations, on vessels
other than river ferryboats and river vessels, how are
periodic lifeboat weight tests required to be conducted?
A: The lifeboat is lowered to near the water, loaded with the
allowed capacity, lowered into the water until afloat, then
released from the falls.
B: The lifeboat is loaded with the allowed capacity, lowered
into the water until afloat, then released from the falls.
C: The lifeboat is lowered into the water until afloat, loaded
with the allowed capacity, then released from the falls.
D: The lifeboat is lowered to near the water, loaded with the
allowed capacity, then released from the falls.
692: Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing
an oil fire?
A: To coat the surrounding bulkheads with foam in case the fire
spreads
B: To cool the bulkhead closest to the fire
C: To prevent any oil on the bulkheads from igniting
D: To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire
693: You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached.
If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position
you will _____.
A: produce high-velocity fog
B: produce low-velocity fog
C: produce a straight stream
D: shut off the water
694: What is the international distress frequency for
radiotelephones?
A: 500 kHz
B: 1347 kHz
C: 2182 kHz
D: 2738 kHz
695: The Declaration of Inspection made before oil transfer
operations must be signed by the _____________________.
A: Master of the vessel
B: Captain of the Port
C: person(s) in charge
D: All of the above
696: For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an
oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of
the following EXCEPT ____.
A: 3 litres of water
B: 1 unit of provisions
C: 1 seasickness kit
D: 1 life preserver
697: A violation of the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone
Act" may result in a _______.
A: civil penalty of $500 against the Master or person in
charge of a vessel
B: civil penalty of $1,000 against the vessel itself
C: suspension and/or revocation of an operator's FCC license
D: All of the above
698: The spread of fire is prevented by ______________________.
A: cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire
B: removing combustibles from the endangered area
C: shutting off the oxygen supply
D: All of the above
699: What is the minimum length of a life floats paddle on a
small passenger vessel?
A: Three feet
B: Four feet
C: Five feet
D: Six feet
700: Intact buoyancy is a term used to describe ________________.
A: the volume of all intact spaces above the waterline
B: an intact space below the surface of a flooded area
C: an intact space which can be flooded without causing a ship
to sink
D: the space at which all the vertical upward forces of
buoyancy are considered to be concentrated
701: Which statement about free surface is TRUE?
A: A partially filled space with 40% surface permeability
will have greater free surface effect than one with 60%
surface permeability.
B: Pocketing increases the loss of GM due to free surface
effect.
C: Cargo with a specific gravity of 1.05 has less free surface
effect than a cargo with a specific gravity of 0.98.
D: Pocketing occurs at small angles of inclination when a tank
is 98% full.
702: Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?
A: Foam conducts electricity.
B: To be most effective, foam should be directed at the base of
the fire.
C: Foam is most effective on burning liquids which are flowing.
D: Foam can ONLY be used to extinguish class A fires.
703: How many life preservers are provided in each lifeboat?
A: None
B: Two
C: One for each person the boat is certified to carry
D: Only work vests are provided
704: Which radiotelephone transmission may be sent over channel
A: Distress signal MAYDAY
B: Call to a particular station
C: A meteorological warning
D: All of the above
705: Your vessel is at a dock taking bunkers through a pipe laid
down on the dock. If oil begins to flow out of a tank vent,
what should you do FIRST?
A: Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank.
B: Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill.
C: Signal the shore control point to shut down.
D: Close the valve on the tank vent line.
706: The painter on a life float or buoyant apparatus shall
_____________.
A: have a minimum breaking strength of 3,000 lbs. if the
capacity of the lifesaving gear is 50 persons or greater
B: be resistant to ultraviolet sunlight deterioration
C: be stowed to pay out freely if the vessel sinks
D: All of the above
707: If your bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone ceases to operate,
you must ___________________.
A: immediately anchor your vessel and arrange for repairs to
the system
B: moor your vessel at the nearest dock available and arrange
for repairs to the system
C: arrange for the repair of the system to be completed within
48 hours
D: exercise due diligence to restore the system at the earliest
practicable time
708: Removing which will extinguish a fire?
A: Nitrogen
B: Carbon dioxide
C: Sodium
D: Oxygen
709: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free
surface when a tank 60 ft. wide and 60 ft. long is partially
filled with saltwater? (The vessel's displacement is 10,000
tons.)
A: 3.00 feet
B: 3.09 feet
C: 3.15 feet
D: 3.20 feet
710: Buoyancy is a measure of the ship's ____________________.
A: ability to float
B: deadweight
C: freeboard
D: midships strength
711: When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the
breathing cycle should be repeated about __________________.
A: 12 to 15 times per minute
B: 18 to 20 times per minute
C: 20 to 25 times per minute
D: as fast as possible
712: Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam
on an oil fire?
A: It cools the surface of the liquid.
B: It gives protection to fire fighting personnel against the
heat of the fire.
C: It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil.
D: It should be used at the same time a solid stream of water
is being applied.
713: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to
prevent _____.
A: the falls from unhooking if the releasing gear is operated
accidentally
B: operation of the release lever until the boat is waterborne
C: the falls from rehooking after they have been released
D: accidental unhooking when the falls become slack
714: A Coast Guard radiotelephone message about an aid to
navigation that is off station is preceded by the word ____.
A: "PAN-PAN"
B: "MAYDAY"
C: "SOS"
D: "SECURITY"
715: Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in
the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume
pumping, you should ___________.
A: notify the terminal superintendent
B: place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers
C: repair the hose with a patch
D: replace the hose
716: The required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat
on an oceangoing vessel is _____________.
A: 1 litre
B: 2 litres
C: 3 litres
D: 4 litres
717: If your radiotelephone fails while underway, __________.
A: you must visually signal oncoming vessels
B: you must immediately tie up in the nearest port until the
radiotelephone is repaired
C: you must anchor until the radiotelephone is repaired
D: the loss of the radiotelephone must be considered in
navigating the vessel
718: Painters fitted to life floats and buoyant apparatus with a
capacity of 49 or less persons must _____________.
A: be of manila rope or equivalent, not less than two inches
in circumference and not less than four fathoms long
B: be 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of at least
1500 lbs.
C: be at least 100 feet long and have a breaking strength of
3,000 lbs.
D: be made of 90 feet of 3/8" nylon
719: A fire hose has a _______________.
A: male coupling at both ends
B: female coupling at both ends
C: female coupling at the nozzle end and a male coupling at the
hydrant end
D: male coupling at the nozzle end and a female coupling at the
hydrant end
720: The center of volume of the immersed portion of the hull is
called the ________________________.
A: center of buoyancy
B: center of flotation
C: center of gravity
D: tipping center
721: Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the
starboard and port drafts. This difference is called _____.
A: list
B: heel
C: trim
D: flotation
722: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the drafts.
A: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-00"
B: FWD 23'-07", AFT 26'-07"
C: FWD 24'-01", AFT 26'-02"
D: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-10"
723: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to
indicate an emergency condition within the submarine is
__________.
A: red
B: white
C: yellow
D: green
724: Messages concerning weather conditions transmitted by
radiotelephone are preceded by ___________.
A: MAYDAY
B: PAN-PAN
C: SECURITE
D: SOS
725: You notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on
fuel. You should FIRST ______________.
A: stop fueling
B: notify the senior deck officer
C: notify the terminal superintendent
D: determine whether your vessel is the source
726: On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat
(without desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat
must be supplied with ______________.
A: 2 pounds of condensed milk
B: a signaling whistle
C: 3 litres of water
D: a life preserver
727: Under the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act",
failure of a vessel's radiotelephone equipment _______.
A: constitutes a violation of the Act
B: obligates the operator to moor or anchor the vessel
immediately
C: requires immediate, emergency repairs
D: does not, in itself, constitute a violation of the Act
728: When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the
effect of the weight of the water must be taken into
account. How much sea water will increase the weight
displacement by one ton?
A: 64 cubic feet
B: 35 cubic feet
C: 100 gallons
D: 500 liters
729: At what rate would you render mouth to mouth or mouth to
nose artificial respiration to an adult?
A: 4 to 6 times per minute
B: 12 to 15 times per minute
C: 20 to 30 times per minute
D: At least 30 times per minute
730: The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a
flooded compartment that can be occupied by water caused by
damage is known as ________________________.
A: one compartment standard
B: center of flotation
C: permeability
D: form gain
731: If Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies to your vessel, you will
not be able to discharge __________ anywhere at sea.
A: plastic
B: metal
C: glass
D: paper
732: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE concerning the use of dry
chemical extinguishers?
A: You should direct the spray at the base of the fire.
B: You should direct the spray directly into the fire.
C: You should direct the spray at a vertical bulkhead and allow
it to flow over the fire.
D: All of the above
733: Lifeboat hatchets should be _____________.
A: kept in a locker
B: secured at each end of the boat with a lanyard
C: kept next to the boat coxswain
D: kept in the emergency locker on the ship and brought to the
lifeboat when needed
734: On small passenger vessels painters fitted to life floats
shall be at least _________________.
A: 20.0 meters (65.5 feet)in length
B: 30.5 meters (100 feet)in length
C: 10 fathoms (60 feet)in length
D: 90 feet (27.5 meters)in length
735: You are fueling your vessel when you notice oil in the water
around your vessel. You should immediately stop fueling
and _______________.
A: begin cleanup operations
B: notify the U. S. Coast Guard
C: leave the area
D: notify the Corps of Engineers
736: How many litres of water per person must be carried in
lifeboats on a tankship sailing a coastwise route?
A: None
B: One
C: Two
D: Three
737: When using the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR's) for Tank
Vessels, you see T/O and B/C. What do the T and B
tell you?
A: The waters in which vessels may operate
B: Special construction limitations
C: Grades of cargo which may be carried
D: Type of vessel to which the regulation applies
738: There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the
fire, you should ___________________.
A: put the wind off either beam
B: head the bow into the wind and decrease speed
C: put the stern into the wind and increase speed
D: put the stern into the wind and decrease speed
739: A 7,000 ton displacement tankship carries two slack tanks of
alcohol with a S.G. of 0.8. Each tank is 50 ft. long and
30 ft. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free
surface with the vessel floating in sea water, S.G. is
A: .36 ft
B: .46 ft
C: .72 ft
D: .82 ft
740: What is NOT a motion of the vessel?
A: Pitch
B: Roll
C: Trim
D: Yaw
741: You are ordering ship's stores. Which statement is TRUE?
A: Stores such as line, rags, mattresses, linens, etc. must be
treated to be fire retardant.
B: Stores certified for use on uninspected vessels may be
identified by the certification number used by Underwriter's
Laboratories.
C: A portable container of a flammable liquid used as fuel
for portable auxiliary equipment must be stowed in a paint
locker or at a designated open location.
D: Acetylene may be in a ship's storeroom in quantities not
exceeding 6000 cubic feet.
742: An advantage of an ABC dry chemical over a carbon dioxide
extinguisher is _________________.
A: lack of toxicity
B: the multipurpose extinguishing ability
C: burn-back protection
D: cooling ability
743: In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate
properly _______.
A: the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is
waterborne
B: the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat
properly
C: there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube
D: the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be
turned counterclockwise
744: You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 mHz) or 2182 kHz. You
need help but are not in danger. You should use the urgent
signal ______.
A: "ASSISTANCE NEEDED"
B: "PAN-PAN"
C: "MAYDAY"
D: "SECURITE"
745: You detect oil around your tank vessel while discharging.
The FIRST thing to do is _____________.
A: try to find out where the oil is coming from
B: call the Master
C: have the pumpman check the discharge piping
D: shut down operations
746: The quantity of fuel required to be carried in a motor
lifeboat is _______________________.
A: the quantity needed for 24 hours continuous operation
B: the quantity needed for 48 hours continuous operation
C: 55 gallons
D: 90 gallons
747: Which statement about the use of portable electric lights in
petroleum product tanks is TRUE?
A: The fixture must be explosion-proof and the line must have a
ground wire.
B: They can be used only when the compartment is gas free.
C: They must be explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed
lamps.
D: No portable electric equipment of any type is allowed.
748: A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You
should maneuver your vessel so the wind ________.
A: blows the fire back toward the vessel
B: comes over the bow
C: comes over the stern
D: comes over either beam
749: Small passenger vessels on rivers routes in cold water must
be provided with lifefloats of an aggregate capacity to
accommodate ____________.
A: at least 50% of all persons on board or meet certain
construction standards
B: 100% of the crew and 50% of all passengers allowed to be
carried
C: not less than 50% of all passengers on board at the time
D: All persons on board (100% of all passengers and crew)
750: The center of flotation of a vessel is _________.
A: the center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel
B: the center of gravity of the water plane
C: that point at which all the vertical downward forces of
weight are considered to be concentrated
D: that point at which all the vertical upward forces of
buoyancy are considered to be concentrated
751: Under the International Code of Signals how are geographical
locations such as New York City transmitted?
A: A commonly used abbreviation such as NYC is used.
B: The name is spelled out.
C: The geographical coordinates are used.
D: The radio station call sign for the nearest marine radio
station is used.
752: Which statement describes the primary process by which fires
are extinguished by dry chemical?
A: The stream of dry chemical powder cools the fire.
B: The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain
reaction.
C: The powder forms a solid coating over the surface.
D: The dry chemical smothers the fire.
753: How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned
ship and are adrift in a life raft?
A: Immediately use all the signals at once.
B: Use all the signals during the first night.
C: Employ a signal every hour after abandoning ship until they
are gone.
D: Use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in
the area.
754: "PAN-PAN" repeated three times over the radiotelephone
indicates which type of message will follow?
A: Distress
B: Safety
C: All clear
D: Urgency
755: While your vessel is taking on fuel you notice oil on the
water around the vessel. What should you do FIRST?
A: Stop the fueling.
B: Notify the Coast Guard.
C: Notify the terminal superintendent.
D: Determine the source of the oil.
756: A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate
continuously for a period of _______.
A: 12 hours
B: 18 hours
C: 24 hours
D: 36 hours
757: Which tank vessel must carry a signaling lamp?
A: A 1,000 GT tanker on a coastwise voyage
B: A 200 GT tanker on an international voyage
C: A 300 GT tanker on an intercoastal voyage
D: All of the above
758: A fire is discovered in the forepeak of a vessel at sea.
The wind is from ahead at 35 knots. You should ___________.
A: remain on course and hold speed
B: change course and put the stern to the wind
C: change course to put the wind on either beam and increase
speed
D: remain on course but slack the speed
759: Determine the free surface correction for a fuel oil tank 30
ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep, with a free surface
constant of 3794. The vessel is displacing 7,000 tons in
saltwater.
A: 0.35 foot
B: 0.54 foot
C: 0.65 foot
D: 1.38 feet
760: A suitable rescue boat is required ___________.
A: on all "T-Boats" more than 65 feet in length
B: on all "T-Boats" regardless of length
C: only on "K-Boats"
D: None of the above
761: Which when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a
fire?
A: Oxygen
B: Carbon dioxide
C: Sodium
D: Nitrogen
762: The most effective extinguishing action of dry chemical is
_______.
A: breaking the chain reaction
B: the CO2 that is formed by heat
C: smothering
D: shielding of radiant heat
763: Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for
night signalling to a ship on the horizon?
A: A red parachute flare
B: A red hand-held flare
C: A flashlight
D: A lantern
764: Which word is an international distress signal when
transmitted by radiotelephone?
A: Securite
B: Mayday
C: Breaker
D: Pan
765: Hoses used for cargo transfer operations must be tested abd
inspected at specified intervals by ____________.
A: a representative of the Captain of the Port
B: the operator of the vessel or facility
C: a representative of the National Cargo Bureau
D: a representative of the American Bureau of Shipping
767: On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed
____________.
A: on or near the navigating bridge
B: on the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any
bulkhead
C: above the freeboard deck away from heat
D: in an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from
heat
768: Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?
A: It is heavier than air.
B: It is an inert gas.
C: It is used on class B and C fires.
D: All of the above are true.
769: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with
____________.
A: a painter
B: red smoke flares
C: a jacknife
D: a signal mirror
770: A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it
______.
A: has no more than two compartments
B: has two compartments in addition to the engine room
C: will sink if any two compartments are flooded
D: will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded
771: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the
signal flag "F" hoisted. What should you do?
A: Continue on your present course since the vessel is
signalling for a pilot.
B: Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she
is disabled.
C: Stop your vessel instantly.
D: Change course to keep clear of the vessel because she is
maneuvering with difficulty.
772: What do the small passenger vessel regulations require
when installing a hydraulic accumulator or other unfired
pressure vessel?
A: It be operated at one and one half times normal operating
pressure for ten minutes.
B: Safety and/or relief valves settings be checked at two and
one half times normal operating pressures.
C: It be installed to the satisfaction of the cognizant OCMI
D: All of the above
773: When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to
_______.
A: set it on the centerline of the boat
B: apply the correction for compass error
C: keep metal objects away from it
D: All of the above
774: If you send a flag hoist of MAJ 8, what information are you
conveying?
A: The least depth of water in the channel is 8 meters.
B: Derelict dangerous to navigation to the north.
C: Navigation is closed. You should navigate with caution.
D: I have a male age 8 years.
775: During the annual inspection by the owner, each nonmetallic
oil transfer hose larger than 3 inches inside diameter must
not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under static
liquid pressure at least as great as _________________.
A: 100 pounds
B: the pressure of the relief valve setting
C: the pressure applied by the shoreside pump
D: 1-1/2 times the maximum allowable working pressure
776: When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out class B
fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry
chemical_________.
A: is not an effective agent on Class B fires
B: does little or no cooling
C: dissipates quickly
D: is rapidly absorbed by the liquid
777: On small passenger vessels a gasoline engine must
be fitted with _____________.
A: A means of backfire flame control
B: A lubricating oil pressure gauge and a tachometer
C: Jacket water discharge temperature gauges
D: All of the above
778: An aluminum powder fire is classified as class ___.
779: A bulk freighter 680 ft. in length, 60 ft. beam, with a
waterplane coefficient of .84, is floating in salt water at
a draft of 21'. How many long tons would it take to
increase the mean draft by 1"?
A: 64.3 tons
B: 69.6 tons
C: 81.6 tons
D: 116 tons
780: The change in trim of a vessel may be found by ____________.
A: dividing the trim moments by MT1
B: subtracting the LCF from the LCB
C: looking at the Hydrostatic Properties Table for the draft of
the vessel
D: dividing longitudinal moments by the displacement
781: How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit
inflated?
A: It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically
tripped when the front zipper is at the top of the zipper
track.
B: It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually
tripped.
C: It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube.
D: It inflates by sea water bleeding into the flotation bladder
and reacting with a chemical therein.
782: On small passenger vessels what device must you
install under carburetors, other than the downdraft
type, to allow ready removal of fuel leakage?
A: A drip collector
B: A funnel and a tin can
C: A sponge
D: Suitable absorbent material
783: A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is
speaking of __________.
A: the line attached to the tack of the lugsail
B: the emergency rudder
C: a canvas awning
D: the aftermost seating
784: While communicating with a shore station concerning an
injured female, your message should indicate the subject's
age is 32. Which code would your message contain?
A: MAO 32
B: MAJ 32
C: MAL 32
D: MAK 32
785: 33 CFR 156 deals with matters concerning ____________.
A: oil and hazardous material transfer operations
B: vessel construction and design
C: operation of nautical schoolships
D: lifesaving and firefighting equipment
786: Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a
lifeboat?
A: Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are required.
B: If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided,
they are the only distress signals required.
C: Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provided.
D: A Very pistol with twelve flares is required.
787: To determine which grades of cargo a tank vessel is
permitted to carry you should _____.
A: refer to the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
B: examine the cargo tanks and fittings
C: ask the terminal supervisor or his representative
D: check the loading order
788: Fires of which class would most likely occur in the engine
room of a vessel?
A: Classes A and B
B: Classes B and C
C: Classes C and D
D: Classes A and D
789: An inflatable life raft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be
stowed __________.
A: so as to float free
B: with the vessel's emergency equipment
C: near the wheelhouse
D: as far forward as possible
790: Which would NOT provide extra buoyancy for a vessel with no
sheer?
A: Lighter draft
B: Raised fo'c'sle head
C: Raised poop
D: Higher bulwark
791: During a training exercise a submarine indicating that a
torpedo has been fired will send up smoke from a float. The
smoke's color will be _____.
A: black
B: red
C: orange
D: yellow
792: What is an advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher as
compared to a carbon dioxide extinguisher?
A: It has a greater duration.
B: It provides a heat shield for the operator.
C: It is nontoxic.
D: It offers lasting, effective protection against burn-back.
793: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of
oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's
inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil
tank washing?
A: 6%
B: 8%
C: 10%
D: 12%
794: An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a
passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You
want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be
evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your
message contain?
A: MAF
B: MAB
C: MAA
D: MAE
795: The authority to grant an alternate procedure for oil
transfer operations rests with the ___________________.
A: nearest Coast Guard office
B: Officer-in-Charge, Marine Inspection
C: Area Commander
D: Captain of the Port
796: When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you
should NOT hold the horn of the extinguisher because the
horn ______.
A: becomes extremely hot
B: becomes extremely cold
C: could come off in your hands
D: is placed directly in the flames
797: Which statement about the hospital space on a cargo ship is
TRUE?
A: The hospital may be used for disciplinary confinement if it
is not being used for treatment.
B: The hospital space must have both a bathtub and shower.
C: A hospital is required on all vessels with a crew of 12 or
more if it makes overnight voyages.
D: If a ship has a crew of forty-five who do not have their
own room, the hospital must have four berths.
798: A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This
is which class of fire?
799: Lines or gear NOT in use should be __________________.
A: conspicuously marked
B: stowed anywhere
C: left on deck
D: secured or stowed out of the way
800: The "trimming arm" of a vessel is the horizontal distance
between the _______________.
A: LCB and LCF
B: LCF and LCB
C: forward perpendicular and LCG
D: LCB and LCG
801: No person on board any vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL
73/78 applies may discharge garbage of any type when ______.
A: less than 12 nautical miles from the United States
B: less than 12 nautical miles from nearest land
C: in the navigable waters of the United States
D: less than 25 nautical miles from nearest land
802: A portable dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by
_________.
A: gravity when the extinguisher is turned upside down
B: pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher
C: air pressure from the hand pump attached to the
extinguisher
D: pressure from the reaction when water is mixed with the
chemical
803: The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is ______.
A: 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
B: more than 6 short blasts
C: more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
D: 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds
804: You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are
requesting urgent medical advice. Your message should
contain which code?
A: MAB
B: MAD
C: MAA
D: MAF
805: Application for a waiver of any requirements of the
regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted to
the _____________.
A: District Commander
B: Commandant
C: Captain of the Port
D: nearest Coast Guard office
806: On small passenger vessels electrical equipment
in spaces that contain gasoline powered machinery
must be ______________.
A: explosion-proof
B: intrinsically safe
C: ignition protected for use in a gasoline atmosphere
D: All of the above
807: The space containing carbon dioxide cylinders shall be
properly ventilated and designed to prevent an ambient
temperature in excess of ___________________.
A: 75ø F
B: 100ø F
C: 130ø F
D: 165ø F
808: A fire in a pile of canvas is classified as class ___.
809: If the patient vomits during mouth-to mouth resuscitation,
the rescuer should FIRST _____________.
A: ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation
B: pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again,
then resume ventilation mouth-to-mouth
C: switch to mouth-to-nose ventilation
D: turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and
resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation
810: When a vessel's LCG is aft of her LCB, the vessel will ____.
A: trim by the stern
B: trim by the head
C: be on an even keel
D: be tender
811: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You
can reduce the possibility of capsizing by ________________.
A: constantly shifting the rudder
B: rigging a sea anchor
C: moving all personnel aft
D: moving all personnel forward and low
812: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry
chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed
____________________.
A: at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
B: to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
C: over the top of the fire
D: at the main body of the fire
813: You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound
for over 10 seconds. Traditionally, this is the signal for
_____.
A: abandon ship
B: dismissal from fire and emergency stations
C: fire and emergency
D: man overboard
814: In the International Code of signals, a group of three
letters indicates _________________.
A: urgency or an emergency
B: the vessel's national identity signal
C: a group from the general signal code
D: a group from the medical signal code
815: Applications for waivers of any requirements of the
regulations for oil transfer operations must be submitted
_______________________.
A: the day before the operations
B: 5 days before the operations
C: 10 days before the operations
D: 30 days before the operations
816: You are crude oil washing on a tanker with an inert gas
system. What percentage of oxygen must the inert gas system
produce and deliver to the tanks?
817: An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient
means must be provided for a pilot whenever the distance
from the sea level is more than _______.
A: 20 feet
B: 30 feet
C: 40 feet
D: 50 feet
818: A fire in a transformer terminal would be classified as
class ____.
819: Providing you are not in a special area, such as the
Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land
must you be to throw wooden dunnage into the sea?
A: 25 nm
B: 12 nm
C: 6 nm
D: 3 nm
820: The two points that act together to trim a ship are the
________.
A: LCF and LCB
B: LCG and LCB
C: metacenter and LCG
D: VCG and LCG
821: Bleeding from a vein is _________________________.
A: dark red and has a steady flow
B: bright red and slow
C: bright red and spurting
D: dark red and spurting
822: When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, the stream
of dry chemicals should be _____________________.
A: aimed at the source of the flames
B: fogged above the equipment
C: shot off a flat surface onto the flames
D: used to shield against electrical shock
823: Traditionally,the signal for fire aboard ship is ________.
A: more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle,
and the same signal on the general alarm
B: continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general
alarm for at least 10 seconds
C: 1 short blast on the whistle
D: continuous blowing of the ship's whistle for a period of 10
seconds
824: You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ.
This means "_____."
A: Place patient in hot bath
B: The wound should be stitched
C: You should pass a stomach tube
D: The wound should not be stitched
825: ABYC equipment standards are published by the ___________.
A: Association of Boat and Yacht Classifiers
B: American Boat and Yacht Council
C: American Boat and Yacht Convention 1991
D: American Boat and Yacht Club
826: The number of flashlights required as lifeboat equipment on
a seagoing barge is _________.
A: none
B: one
C: two
D: three
827: A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be
marked___________.
A: in block type Arabic numerals not less than 3 inches high
B: or mounted so that any alteration, removal, or replacement
would be obvious
C: on some clearly visible interior structural hull part
D: All of the above
828: A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class __.
829: A fire starting by spontaneous combustion can be expected in
which condition?
A: Paints, varnish, or other liquid flammables are stowed in a
dry stores locker.
B: Inert cargoes such as pig iron are loaded in a wet
condition.
C: Oily rags are stowed in a metal pail.
D: Clean mattresses are stored in contact with an electric
light bulb.
830: Your vessel has a midships engine room and the cargo is
concentrated in the end holds. The vessel is _____________.
A: sagging with tensile stress on main deck
B: sagging with compressive stress on main deck
C: hogging with tensile stress on main deck
D: hogging with compressive stress on main deck
831: The spread of fire is prevented by _______________.
A: heating surfaces adjacent to the fire
B: leaving combustibles in the endangered area
C: shutting off the oxygen supply
D: All of the above
832: Which statement is TRUE concerning the use of a dry chemical
extinguisher?
A: You should direct the stream at the base of the fire.
B: You should direct the stream directly into the fire.
C: You should direct the stream at a vertical bulkhead and
allow it to flow over the fire.
D: All of the above
833: While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts
on the whistle and 3 short rings on the general alarm
bells" is the signal for ___________________.
A: abandon ship
B: dismissal from fire and emergency stations
C: fire and emergency
D: man overboard
834: After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill
crew member, you receive a message containing the code MRL.
This means "_______".
A: Apply ice-cold compress and renew every 4 hours
B: Commence artificial respiration immediately
C: Give enema
D: Pass catheter into bladder
835: No person may serve as the person in charge of both the
vessel and the facility during oil transfer operations
unless _____________.
A: there is ready access between the two
B: the vessel and facility are immediately adjacent
C: the person in charge has a rapid means of transportation
between the two
D: the Captain of the Port authorizes such procedure
836: What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a
capacity of 675 cubic feet?
837: The largest crew a cargo vessel may carry without having a
hospital space is _____.
838: A class C fire would be burning _________________.
A: fuel oil
B: wood
C: celluloid
D: electrical insulation
839: A small passenger vessel's Official Number must be
marked___________.
A: in block type Arabic numerals not less than 1-1/2 inch high
B: or mounted so its alteration, removal, or replacement would
be obvious
C: on some clearly visible exterior structural hull part
D: All of the above
840: If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the
sheer strake?
A: Compression
B: Tension
C: Thrust
D: Racking
841: Blood flowing from a cut artery appears _____________.
A: dark red with a steady flow
B: bright red with a steady flow
C: bright red and in spurts
D: dark red and in spurts
842: As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which
advantage?
A: Cleaner
B: Effective on metal fires
C: Greater range
D: More cooling effect
843: The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is
_______.
A: 3 short blasts of the ship's whistle
B: 1 short blast of the ship's whistle
C: 3 long blasts of the ship's whistle
D: 1 long blast of the ship's whistle
844: If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should
your message contain?
A: MPO
B: MPR
C: MPK
D: MPJ
845: Each pressure gage used in an oil transfer operation must be
accurate to within _____________.
A: 1 percent
B: 3 percent
C: 5 percent
D: 10 percent
846: If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft
and 200 feet from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?
A: 80 feet
B: 120 feet
C: Sufficiently long enough to reach the water when the vessel
has an adverse list of 15ø
D: One third the length from the bow to where the lifeboat is
stowed
847: When testing a Class A EPIRB you will know the EPIRB is
working properly if you hear on 99.5 Mhz FM or any vacant
frequency on a nearby AM radio_____________.
A: a distinctive signal
B: the Morse Code signal for SOS
C: a computerized voice announcement of Mayday
D: your vessel's International Radio Call Sign
848: The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential
is class ___.
849: You are testing the external inflation bladder on an
immersion suit and find it has a very slow leak. Which
action should be taken?
A: Replace the suit.
B: Replace the inflation bladder.
C: Take it out of service and repair in accordance with the
manufacturers instructions.
D: Some leakage should be expected and a topping off tube is
provided; no other action is necessary.
850: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the
main deck is under _______________________.
A: compression stress
B: tension stress
C: shear stress
D: racking stress
851: The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire
is ____.
A: CO2
B: dry chemical
C: water
D: foam
852: Which statement concerning the application of dry chemical
powder is FALSE?
A: At temperatures of less than 32² F, the extinguisher must be
recharged more often.
B: When possible, the fire should be attacked from windward.
C: The stream should be directed at the base of the fire.
D: Directing the stream into burning flammable liquid may cause
splashing.
853: When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one
short blast means _______________________.
A: "use the float-free method only"
B: "lower all boats"
C: "raise all boats"
D: "drill is over, secure all boats"
854: If an ill crew member is beginning to show signs of
improvement, what code should your message contain?
A: MVP
B: MPH
C: MPF
D: MSO
855: The term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the
Pollution Regulations, means the _______________.
A: length of any individual cargo space, from bulkhead to
bulkhead
B: greatest distance between two opposite cargo tank bulkheads
C: diagonal measurement of a cargo tank
D: length from the forward bulkhead of the forwardmost cargo
tanks to the after bulkhead of the aftermost cargo tanks
856: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
A: Immersion suits should be worn during routine work on deck
to provide maximum protection.
B: After purchasing, the suit should be removed from its
storage bag and hung on a hanger where readily accessible.
C: Immersion suits must have a PFD light attached to the front
shoulder area.
D: Small leaks or tears may be repaired using the repair kit
packed with the suit.
857: Who must ensure that the emergency lighting and power
systems on cargo vessels are operated at least weekly?
A: Master
B: Chief Engineer
C: Deck officer assigned
D: Engineering officer assigned
858: A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class ____.
860: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is
24'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a
concentration of weight _____________________.
A: at the bow
B: in the lower holds
C: amidships
D: at the ends
861: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the drafts.
A: FWD 26'-09", AFT 28'-00"
B: FWD 27'-00", AFT 27'-10"
C: FWD 27'-03", AFT 27'-07"
D: FWD 27'-06", AFT 27'-04"
862: Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the
greatest extent by _______.
A: cooling
B: smothering
C: oxygen dilution
D: breaking the chain reaction
863: A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a
depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead is placed in the center of the
tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how will
the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be
affected?
A: The moment of inertia would remain unchanged.
B: The moment of inertia would be 1/4 it's original value.
C: The moment of inertia would be 1/2 the original value.
D: None of the above
864: A crew member suddenly becomes blind in both eyes. Which
code should your message contain?
A: MNJ
B: MNM
C: MNO
D: MNI
865: On board a small passenger vessel, fuel tank vents
should ___________.
A: be connected at the highest point in the tank
B: terminate in a U-bend fitted with a single corrosion
resistant wire screen of at least 30x30 mesh
C: be installed with an upward gradient to prevent fuel from
being trapped in the line
D: All of the above
866: The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a
motor-propelled open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is
__________________.
A: determined by the Master
B: specified by the Coast Guard
C: specified by the manufacturer
D: None
867: Cargo vessels being navigated, and fitted with emergency
lighting and power systems, shall have their emergency
systems tested at least once _________.
A: a month
B: in each week
C: in every 6 months
D: in every 12 months
868: Burning wood is which class of fire?
869: As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to ________.
A: hold a victim in a stretcher
B: stop uncontrolled bleeding
C: hold a large bandage in place
D: restrain a delirious victim
870: The forward draft of your ship is 27'-11" and the after
draft is 29'-03". The draft amidships is 28'-05". Your
vessel is __________.
A: hogged
B: sagged
C: listed
D: trimmed by the head
871: The bilge pump on a fishing vessel _________________.
A: must be fixed if the vessel exceeds 12 meters in length
B: may be used as a fire pump
C: must be portable if there are more than 4 watertight
compartments
D: must be capable of pumping at least 450 gpm
872: The safety discs on carbon dioxide cylinders are set to
release at 2,700 psi. Under normal circumstances this
pressure will be reached at a temperature of ______________.
A: 70ø F
B: 100ø F
C: 125ø F
D: 135ø F
873: On small passenger vessels which parts of a water-cooled
gasoline or diesel engine must be water-jacketed and cooled?
A: The engine's head
B: The block
C: The exhaust manifold
D: All of the above
874: If you were being assisted by an icebreaker and he sent you
the single letter "Q", he would be telling you ____________.
A: that he has his engines in reverse
B: that he is shortening the distance between vessels
C: to shorten the distance between vessels
D: that his vessel is healthy
875: How many bolts are required in a temporarily connected
standard ANSI coupling?
876: Which person may command a lifeboat in ocean services
A: Licensed deck officer
B: Able seaman
C: Certificated person
D: All of the above
877: A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is
certified by the ___________.
A: Mine Safety Appliance Association
B: American Chemical Society
C: Marine Chemists Association
D: National Fire Protection Association
878: A fire in a pile of linen is a class ___.
879: To operate a portable CO2 extinguisher continuously in the
discharge mode __________________.
A: slip the "D yoke" ring in the lower handle over the upper
handle
B: reinsert the locking pin
C: open the discharge valve
D: invert the CO2 extinguisher
880: A ship's forward draft is 22'-04" and its after draft is
23'-00". The draft amidships is 23'-04". This indicates a
concentration of weight _________________.
A: at the bow
B: in the lower holds
C: amidships
D: at the ends
881: You should FIRST treat a simple fracture by _______________.
A: attempting to set the fracture
B: preventing further movement of the bone
C: applying a tourniquet
D: alternately applying hot and cold compresses
882: Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with
carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by _____________.
A: closing the compartment except for the ventilators
B: completely closing the compartment
C: leaving the compartment open to the air
D: increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers
883: On a vessel of 15,000 tons displacement, compute the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 50
feet long and 60 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric
height is __________.
A: 1.54 feet
B: 1.59 feet
C: 1.63 feet
D: 1.71 feet
884: The single letter G, sent by an icebreaker to an assisted
vessel, means ______________.
A: "I require a pilot"
B: "Longitude follows"
C: "I am going ahead; follow me"
D: "Do not follow me"
885: Which type of marine sanitation device (MSD) is used solely
for the storage of sewage and flushwater at ambient air
pressure and temperature?
A: Type I
B: Type II
C: Type III
D: Type IV
886: What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or
certificated persons required for a lifeboat on a vessel in
ocean services
A: Two
B: Three
C: Four
D: Five
887: Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage
over other agents?
A: It causes minimal damage.
B: It is safer for personnel.
C: It is cheaper.
D: It is most effective on a per unit basis.
888: An oil fire is classified as class _________.
889: Small quantities of flammable liquids needed at a work site
should be _____________________.
A: used only under the supervision and direction of a ship's
officer
B: tightly capped and stowed with other tools near the job site
when securing at the end of the day
C: used only when a pressurized fire hose is laid out ready for
immediate use
D: in a metal container with a tight cap
890: All of the following can be determined by use of a
stabilogauge EXCEPT _________________.
A: metacentric height
B: mean draft
C: moment to trim one inch
D: deadweight
891: On small passenger vessels, cooling water for the exhaust
lines from an internal combustion engine must be
______________.
A: obtained from the engine's cooling water system or from a
separate engine-driven pump
B: chemically treated to prevent corrosion
C: flushed and changed periodically
D: obtained from a fresh water storage tank or an expansion
tank
892: While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is
accidentally activated. You should _______________.
A: secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the
cylinders
B: continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to
stop the flow of CO2
C: retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before
returning
D: make sure all doors and vents are secured
893: On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, a tank 60 feet
long, 50 feet wide, and 20 feet deep is half filled with
fresh water (SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in
saltwater (SG 1.026) What is the reduction in metacentric
height due to free surface?
A: 0.97 ft.
B: 1.01 ft.
C: 1.35 ft.
D: 1.44 ft.
894: Signals between an icebreaker and an assisted vessel may NOT
be given by _____________.
A: whistle
B: flag hoist
C: radiotelephone
D: radiotelegraph
895: Air-cooled gasoline auxiliary engines are allowed on
vessels not more than 65 feet in length, carrying not
more than 12 passengers if ____________.
A: it is not practicable to supply water to the engine
B: they have a self-contained fuel system and are
installed on an open deck
C: they are rated at not more than 4.5 horsepower
D: All of the above
896: Your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30
April 1992. One of your inflatable life rafts was last
serviced in January 1992. The raft must be reinspected no
later than ___________.
A: April 1992
B: July 1992
C: January 1993
D: April 1993
897: Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?
A: It is lighter than air.
B: It is an inert gas.
C: It is used mostly on class A fires.
D: All of the above
898: A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of
fire?
899: EXCEPT when suffering from a head or chest injury a patient
in shock should be placed in which position?
A: Head up and feet down
B: Head down and feet up
C: Flat on back with head and feet elevated
D: Arms above the head
900: All of the following can be determined by use of a
stabilogauge EXCEPT ___________________.
A: mean draft
B: trim
C: displacement
D: deadweight
901: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire
extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be
__________.
A: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more
than 15%
B: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more
than 25%
C: labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
D: labeled empty and replaced in its proper location regardless
of weight
902: Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire
main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the
engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the
fire?
A: Use the CO2 system and evacuate the engine room.
B: Use the fire main system and evacuate the engine room.
C: Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system.
D: Evacuate the engine room and use the fire main system.
903: On a vessel displacing 8,000 tons, what is the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface when a tank 45 feet
long and 45 feet wide is partly filled with salt water?
A: 1.22 feet
B: 1.16 feet
C: 1.13 feet
D: 1.10 feet
904: If you are on the beach and are signalling to a small boat
in distress that your present location is dangerous and they
should land to the left, you would _______________.
A: fire a green star to the left
B: send the letter K by light and point to the left
C: place an orange signal to your left as you signal with a
white light
D: send the code signal S followed by L
905: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine coming
to periscope depth is __________.
A: white
B: green
C: yellow
D: red
906: Inflatable life rafts shall be serviced at an approved
servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the
next vessel inspection for certification. However, the
total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed ________.
A: 12 months
B: 15 months
C: 17 months
D: 18 months
907: An advantage of a dry chemical over a carbon dioxide fire
extinguisher is its ________________.
A: greater range
B: effectiveness on all types of fires
C: cleanliness
D: All of the above
908: If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?
A: Magnesium
B: Paper
C: Wood
D: Diesel Oil
909: Which part of the inert gas system is designed to relieve
sudden large overpressures that exceed the capacity of
the mechanical P/V valves?
A: Pressure control valve
B: Deck water seal
C: Liquid filled P/V breaker
D: Isolation valve
910: When using a stabilogauge, unless the density correction is
applied, the center of gravity of a loaded compartment is
assumed to be located _________________________________.
A: on the deck of the compartment
B: at one-third the height of the compartment
C: at the geometric center of the compartment
D: at one-half the height of the compartment
911: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 3.75 feet
B: 3.02 feet
C: 2.22 feet
D: 0.83 foot
912: A "fifteen-pound" CO2 extinguisher is so called because
________.
A: there are fifteen pounds of CO2 in the container
B: the container, when full, weighs fifteen pounds
C: the pressure at the discharge nozzle is l5 psi
D: the empty container weighs fifteen pounds
913: On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 40
feet long and 20 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric
height is __________.
A: 0.1 ft
B: 0.3 ft
C: 0.5 ft
D: 0.9 ft
914: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen - Assistance
will be given as soon as possible"?
A: Red star rocket
B: Orange smoke signal
C: Green star rocket
D: Vertical motion of a flag
915: Which is/are required for engine exhaust
pipe installations on small passenger vessels?
A: Protection where people or equipment can contact the pipe.
B: Piping must be arranged so that water backflow cannot reach
the engine exhaust ports
C: Dry exhaust pipe ending at the transom should be located
as far outboard as possible
D: All of the above
916: Who should inspect and test an inflatable life raft?
A: The Chief Mate
B: The manufacturer or authorized representative
C: Shipyard personnel
D: A certificated lifeboatman
917: Foam-type portable fire extinguishers are most useful in
combating fires involving ____________________.
A: solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber
B: inflammable liquids
C: electrical equipment
D: metallic solids
918: Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such
as switchboard insulation, are class ___.
919: After an accident the victim may go into shock and die. What
should be done to help prevent shock?
A: Slightly elevate the head and feet.
B: Keep the person awake.
C: Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature.
D: Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow.
920: If a vessel lists to port, the center of buoyancy will ____.
A: move to port
B: move to starboard
C: move directly down
D: stay in the same position
921: You can determine that a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully
charged by _______.
A: looking at the gage
B: checking the nameplate data
C: weighing by hand
D: weighing on a properly calibrated scale
922: An upright vessel has negative GM. GM becomes positive at
the angle of loll because the ___________.
A: free surface effects are reduced due to pocketing
B: KG is reduced as the vessel seeks the angle of loll
C: effective beam is increased causing BM to increase
D: underwater volume of the hull is increased
923: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 60 feet and full
period of roll is 20 seconds. What is the estimated
metacentric height of the vessel?
A: 1.3 ft
B: 1.5 ft
C: 1.7 ft
D: 1.9 ft
924: What is the lifesaving signal for "You are seen -
assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
A: 3 white star signals
B: Horizontal motion with a white flag
C: Vertical motion of a white light
D: Code letter "K" by blinker light
925: The center of flotation of a vessel is the geometric center
of the _______.
A: underwater volume
B: above water volume
C: amidships section
D: waterplane area
926: Inflatable life rafts must be overhauled and inspected at a
U.S. Coast Guard approved service facility every ______.
A: six months
B: twelve months
C: eighteen months
D: twenty-four months
927: The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood
fires is ________.
A: water
B: carbon dioxide
C: foam
D: dry chemical
928: A fire in the Loran gear would be of what class?
929: According to Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage containing
plastic is permitted to be disposed of by ____________.
A: incinerating offshore
B: discharging when at least 12 nautical miles from nearest
land
C: grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 12
nautical miles from nearest land
D: grinding to less than 1" and discharging at least 25
nautical miles from nearest land
930: Semi-portable extinguishers used on inspected vessels are
sizes _____.
A: II, III, and IV
B: I, II, and III
C: III, IV, and V
D: IV and V
931: The major cause of shock in burn victims is the ________.
A: high level of pain
B: emotional stress
C: increase in body temperature and pulse rate
D: massive loss of fluid through the burned area
932: Portable CO2 fire extinguishers should NOT be used to inert
a space containing flammable liquids due to the danger of
_________.
A: the CO2 being inhaled by personnel
B: reflash of burning liquids
C: vapor condensation on the extinguisher
D: the discharge causing a static spark
933: You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 40 feet and
the full rolling period is 20 seconds. What is the
estimated metacentric height of the vessel?
A: 0.3 ft.
B: 0.5 ft.
C: 0.8 ft.
D: 1.1 ft.
934: The signal used with shore lifesaving equipment to indicate,
"Affirmative" is _______.
A: vertical motion of the arms
B: code signal "C" sent by light or sound signaling apparatus
C: firing of a red star signal
D: None of the above
935: If an airplane circles a vessel 3 times, crosses the
vessel's course close ahead while rocking the wings, and
heads off in a certain direction, what does this indicate?
A: The plane is in distress and will have to ditch.
B: The plane is going to drop a package and wishes the vessel
to recover it.
C: Someone is in distress in that direction and the vessel
should follow and assist.
D: There is danger ahead and the best course is indicated by
the direction of the aircraft.
936: If your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how
should they be maintained?
A: Have your crew check them annually.
B: They do not need any maintenance.
C: Have them sent ashore to an approved maintenance facility
annually.
D: Have them serviced by the shipyard annually.
937: On a class "B" fire, which portable fire extinguisher would
be the LEAST desirable?
A: Carbon dioxide
B: Water (stored pressure)
C: Dry chemical
D: Foam
938: A magnesium fire is classified as class ___.
939: CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing
system must be pressure tested at least every _____________.
A: year
B: 2 years
C: 6 years
D: 12 years
940: When a vessel is inclined by an external force, the ______.
A: shape of the vessel's underwater hull remains the same
B: vessel's center of gravity shifts to the center of the
vessel's underwater hull
C: vessel's center of buoyancy shifts to the center of the
vessel's underwater hull
D: vessel's mean draft increases
941: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 0.96 foot
B: 1.45 feet
C: 1.96 feet
D: 2.96 feet
942: A fifteen-pound CO2 extinguisher ___________________.
A: contains 15 pounds of CO2
B: weighs 15 pounds when full of CO2
C: has 15 pounds of pressure at the nozzle
D: weighs 15 pounds when empty
943: You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 60 feet, and
you calculate the period of roll to be 25 seconds. What is
the vessel's metacentric height?
A: 0.8 ft
B: 1.1 ft
C: 1.4 ft
D: 1.6 ft
944: The lifesaving signal indicating "You are seen - assistance
will be given as soon as possible" is the _____.
A: vertical motion of white flags
B: vertical motion of a white light or flare
C: firing of a green star signal
D: None of the above
945: The color of rockets, shells, or rocket parachute flares
used to indicate that the vessel is in distress and requires
immediate assistance is ______________.
A: white
B: green
C: red
D: yellow
946: What material is allowed in construction of the hull of a
vessel with an integral diesel fuel tank ?
A: Steel or aluminum
B: Sandwich style fibreglass with a natural rubber core
C: Copper-nickel or copper silicon alloys
D: Any or all of the above
947: When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of
the following should NOT be used?
A: Foam
B: Solid stream water nozzle
C: All-purpose nozzle
D: Carbon dioxide
948: Fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium,
are classified as class ________.
950: Your vessel has taken a slight list from off-center loading
of material on deck. The _____.
A: list should be easily removed
B: mean draft is affected
C: vessel may flop
D: vessel is trimmed
951: If a crewman suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you
should ____________________.
A: drain any blisters
B: apply antiseptic ointment
C: scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infection
D: immerse the arm in cold water
952: Which is the proper method of determining whether a portable
CO2 fire extinguisher needs recharging?
A: Check the tag to see when the extinguisher was last charged.
B: Release a small amount of CO2; if the CO2 discharges, the
extinguisher is acceptable.
C: Weigh the extinguisher and compare the weight against that
stamped on the valve.
D: Recharge the extinguisher at least once each year.
953: You are at sea on a vessel that has a beam of 50 feet, and
you calculate the period of roll to be 22 seconds. What is
the vessel's metacentric height?
A: 0.8 ft
B: 1.0 ft
C: 1.2 ft
D: 1.4 ft
954: Which is the lifesaving signal for, "This is the best place
to land"?
A: Red star rocket
B: Orange smoke signal
C: Green star rocket
D: Horizontal motion of a flag
955: If another station sent you the signal "KG", he would be
_________.
A: telling you to stay clear
B: telling you he has flooded a hold
C: asking you if you needed a tug
D: telling you he found an aircraft wreckage
956: Inflatable life rafts on vessels on an international voyage
must be able to carry between __________________.
A: 2 and 12 people
B: 3 and 20 people
C: 6 and 25 people
D: 6 and 30 people
957: An engine compartment gasoline fire requires which
type of extinguisher?
A: Carbon dioxide
B: Dry chemical
C: Foam
D: All of the above
958: Which substance might be subject to spontaneous combustion?
A: Coal
B: Scrap rubber
C: Leather
D: All of the above
959: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 2.32 feet
B: 2.21 feet
C: 1.97 feet
D: 1.76 feet
960: Your vessel has just finished bunkering and has a small list
due to improper distribution of the fuel oil. This list
will cause _____.
A: a decrease in reserve buoyancy
B: a decrease in the maximum draft
C: the vessel to flop to port and starboard
D: None of the above
961: Safety is increased if _____________________.
A: extra line and wire are laid out on deck for emergency use
B: all lashings are made up, and the decks are clean and clear
C: power tools are kept plugged in for immediate use
D: spare parts are kept on deck for ready access
962: A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be recharged ____.
A: at least annually
B: whenever it is below its required weight
C: only if the extinguisher has been used
D: before every safety inspection
963: Your vessel has a displacement of 19,800 tons. It is 464
feet long, and has a beam of 64 feet. You have timed its
full rolling period to be 21.0 seconds. What is your
vessel's approximate GM?
A: 1.1 ft
B: 1.3 ft
C: 1.6 ft
D: 1.8 ft
964: Which signal is used by a rescue unit to indicate, "Avast
hauling"?
A: Firing of a green star signal
B: Firing of a red star signal
C: An orange smoke signal
D: Three white star rockets fired at one-minute intervals
965: What statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
A: Immersion suits should be worn while performing routine work
on deck.
B: No stowage container for immersion suits may be capable of
being locked.
C: During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be
lubricated using light machine oil or mineral oil.
D: Any tear or leak will render the suit unserviceable and it
must be replaced.
966: On vessels on an international voyage, each inflatable
life raft shall have a carrying capacity of not less than
__________.
A: 50 percent of all persons on board
B: 75 percent of all persons on board
C: 6 nor more than 25 persons
D: 10 nor more than 30 persons
967: Gasoline fuel tanks on small passenger vessels must be
installed ____________.
A: independent of the hull
B: on a level higher than the engine
C: in a cool and insulated place
D: so the fuel line to the engine leads from a shut-off valve
at the bottom of the tank
968: Which condition is necessary for a substance to burn?
A: The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above
its fire point.
B: The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity.
C: The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive
range."
D: All of the above
969: That center around which a vessel trims is called the
_______.
A: tipping center
B: center of buoyancy
C: center of gravity
D: turning center
970: During cargo operations, your vessel develops a list due to
the center of gravity rising above the transverse
metacenter. To correct the list, you should _____.
A: shift weight to the high side
B: shift weight to the centerline
C: add weight in the lower holds or double bottoms
D: remove weight from the lower holds or double bottoms
971: When should you first have any food or water after boarding
a lifeboat or life raft?
A: After 12 hours
B: After 24 hours
C: Within 48 hours
D: Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then
not until 48 hours later
972: Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?
A: It displaces the oxygen in the air.
B: It cannot be seen.
C: It cannot be smelled.
D: It is safe to use near personnel in a confined space.
973: You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 1.0
foot and a beam of 40 feet. What can you expect the rolling
period of the vessel to be?
A: 15.2 seconds
B: 15.9 seconds
C: 17.0 seconds
D: 17.6 seconds
974: On board small passenger vessels the minimum fill pipe size
for a gasoline or diesel tank is ____________.
A: 2 1/2 inches nominal pipe size
B: 1 1/2 inches nominal pipe size
C: Not specified by the Regulations
D: Large enough so it does not cause backpressure and fuel
spillage
975: The waiting signal in code for all forms of signaling is
_______.
976: Inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels must be
annually ____________.
A: overhauled by the ship's crew
B: sent to the Coast Guard for servicing
C: sent to the steamship company shore repair facility
D: sent to a Coast Guard approved service facility
977: Which type of fire is the foam (stored-pressure type) fire
extinguisher effective on?
A: Classes A & B
B: Classes A & C
C: Classes B & C
D: All of the above
978: You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a
fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major
danger from the carbon tetrachloride?
A: It will explode if exposed to a flame.
B: Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot
metal.
C: It will burn rapidly once ignited.
D: You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react
with the carbon tetrachloride.
979: When should you first have any food or water after boarding
a lifeboat or life raft?
A: After 12 hours
B: After 24 hours
C: Within 48 hours
D: Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then
not until 48 hours later.
980: Assuming an even transverse distribution of weight in a
vessel, which condition could cause a list?
A: Empty double-bottoms and lower holds, and a heavy deck cargo
B: Flooding the forepeak to correct the vessel's trim
C: Having KG smaller than KM
D: Having a small positive righting arm
981: Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere
are a hazard because they may ___________________.
A: deteriorate and give off noxious gasses
B: spontaneously heat and catch fire
C: attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding
ground
D: None of the above
982: In continuous operation, the effective range of the 15 pound
CO2 extinguisher is limited to _______________.
A: 2 to 4 feet
B: 3 to 8 feet
C: 9 to 12 feet
D: 10 to 15 feet
983: Your vessel has a metacentric height of 1.12 feet and a beam
of 60 feet. Your average rolling period will be _____.
A: 20 seconds
B: 23 seconds
C: 25 seconds
D: 35 seconds
984: The lifesaving signal indicated by a horizontal motion of a
white light or white flare means ___________________.
A: "Landing here highly dangerous"
B: "Negative"
C: "Avast hauling"
D: Any of the above
985: What should be used to send the group BEARING 074ø TRUE?
A: A074T
B: B074
C: B074T
D: A074
986: According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), the shipboard
Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________.
A: all information ordinarily provided in the Oil Record Book
B: an explanation and purpose of the plan
C: a one-line schematic of the plan to be implemented
D: the operating instructions for any and all oily-water
separators installed aboard the vessel
987: Which extinguishing agent will cool down a heated bulkhead
in the least amount of time?
A: Water stream
B: Water fog
C: Steam
D: Dry chemical
988: Which portable fire extinguisher should be used on a class C
fire on board a vessel?
A: Carbon dioxide
B: Water (stored pressure)
C: Foam
D: Carbon tetrachloride
989: First-, second-, and third-degree burns are classified
according to the _____________________.
A: area of the body burned
B: source of heat causing the burn
C: layers of skin affected
D: size of the burned area
990: If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either
side, the list is most likely caused by ____.
A: negative GM
B: off-center weight
C: pocketing of free surface
D: excessive freeboard
991: Fire extinguishing agents used on Class C fires must be
________.
A: able to absorb heat
B: water based
C: nonconducting
D: nontoxic
992: On small passenger vessels gasoline tanks must be _______.
A: electrically bonded to a common ground
B: fitted with vertical baffle plates if the tank is longer
than 30 inches in any horizontal dimension
C: built without flanged-up top edges
D: All of the above
993: If your vessel has a GM of one foot and a breadth of 50
feet, what will be your full rolling period?
A: 11 seconds
B: 15 seconds
C: 20 seconds
D: 22 seconds
994: The signal to guide vessels in distress, which indicates,
"This is the best place to land" is the ________________.
A: horizontal motion of a white flag
B: letter K in Morse code given by light
C: code flag S as a hoist
D: firing of a white star signal
995: If you receive a message "A243" by any method of signaling,
it would be referring to _________________.
A: bearing
B: altitude
C: diving
D: speed
996: What is the penalty for failure to enforce, or comply with,
the vessel bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations?
A: Civil penalty of no more than $500
B: Civil penalty of no more than $5,000
C: $5,000 fine and imprisonment for not more than one year, or
both
D: $1,000 fine or imprisonment for not more than two years
997: Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing
heat?
A: Water spray
B: Foam
C: Carbon dioxide
D: Dry chemical
998: Fire extinguishers of sizes III, IV, and V are designated as
________.
A: portable
B: semi-portable
C: fixed
D: disposable
999: A documented vessel operating over 50 miles offshore must
carry an inflatable life raft with a __________.
A: SOLAS A pack
B: SOLAS B pack
C: coastal pack
D: small vessel pack
1000: A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal
rolling period. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The vessel has negative GM.
B: The center of gravity is on the centerline.
C: The list can be corrected by reducing KM.
D: The vessel has asymmetrical weight distribution.
1001: Which statement about entering into a tank which has been
sealed for a long time is TRUE?
A: The tank should be tested only once to ensure the oxygen
content is at least 14% before entry.
B: The tank must be tested at frequent intervals to ensure that
hazardous gasses have not regenerated.
C: The tank need not be tested for oxygen content if it is
ventilated for more than 24 hours.
D: If the oxygen content tests at less than 12% you should
wear an approved gas mask.
1002: How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?
A: Point the horn down.
B: Turn cylinder upside-down.
C: Break the rupture disc.
D: Pull pin, squeeze grip.
1003: You are on a vessel that has a metacentric height of 4 feet,
and a beam of 50 feet. What can you expect the rolling
period of the vessel to be?
A: 10.0 seconds
B: 10.5 seconds
C: 11.0 seconds
D: 11.5 seconds
1004: The lifesaving signal used to indicate, "Landing here highly
dangerous" is _________________.
A: firing of a white star signal
B: firing of a red star signal
C: vertical motion of a red light
D: code letter "K" given by light or sound signaling apparatus
1005: Which signal should be used to send the group "Distance 750
nautical miles"?
A: D750
B: D750N
C: R750
D: R750N
1006: An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n) ____________.
A: air bottle for breathing
B: whistle and light
C: whistle, light, and reflective tape
D: whistle, light, and sea dye marker
1007: What is the BEST conductor of electricity?
A: Carbon dioxide
B: Distilled water
C: Fresh water
D: Salt water
1008: A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by _________.
A: gently flooding with water
B: warming the eye with moist warm packs
C: laying the person flat on his back
D: mineral oil drops directly on the eye
1009: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 1.80 feet
B: 1.89 feet
C: 1.98 feet
D: 2.05 feet
1010: Which action will best increase the transverse stability of
a merchant vessel at sea?
A: Ballasting the double bottom tanks
B: Deballasting the deep tanks
C: Positioning a heavy lift cargo on the main deck
D: Raising the cargo booms to the upright position
1011: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel
bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while
navigating?
A: All towing vessels 25 feet or less in length
B: All passenger vessels of 50 gross tons or less, carrying one
or more passengers
C: Power-driven vessels 20 meters in length or longer
D: An intermittently manned floating plant under the control of
a dredge
1012: The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should
be directed __________________.
A: at the base of the flames
B: at the center of the flames
C: to the lee side of the flames
D: over the tops of the flames
1013: If it is impractical to use the fill line to sound the fuel
tank, then the tank should be fitted with _________.
(Small Passenger Vessel Regulations)
A: a separate sounding tube or an installed marine type fuel
gauge
B: An extra five gallon tank for reserve fuel
C: A good air vent of sufficient diameter
D: A glass tube to visually observe the fuel
1014: Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to
indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?
A: The firing of a white star signal
B: Horizontal motion with a white flag
C: Vertical motion of a white light
D: Code letter "K" by blinker light
1015: Which group should be used to send the signal Longitude
109ø34' West?
A: D 0934
B: LO 10934 W
C: G 0934
D: L 10934
1016: What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are
approved for?
A: 1 and 1/2 years
B: 2 years
C: 3 and 1/2 years
D: 5 years
1017: The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a
fire is _____________________.
A: carbon dioxide
B: foam
C: water fog
D: water stream
1019: You are operating 10 miles offshore with three people
aboard. What kind of survival craft must you carry?
A: An inflatable life raft with a coastal pack
B: A life float
C: An inflatable buoyant apparatus
D: No survival craft is required.
1020: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge
radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
A: Towing vessels 25 feet in length or less
B: Passenger vessels of 100 gross tons or greater, carrying
one or more passengers for hire
C: Power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length
D: All of the above
1021: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel
bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while
navigating?
A: Towing vessel 25 feet or less in length
B: Passenger vessel of 50 GT or less, carrying one or more
passengers for hire
C: Power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length, operating
on inland waters
D: Dredges engaged in operations likely to restrict navigation
of other vessels in or near a channel or fairway
1022: When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon
dioxide extinguisher, the stream should be directed at the
________.
A: base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side,
following the flames upward as they diminish
B: top of the flaming area, moving the horn from side to side,
following the flames downward as they diminish
C: center of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically from
top to bottom
D: bottom of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically to
the top following the flames upward as they diminish
1023: Providing you are not in a special area, such as the
Mediterranean or Red Sea, how many nautical miles from land
must you be to throw packing materials that will float into
the sea?
A: 3 nm
B: 6 nm
C: 12 nm
D: 25 nm
1024: The firing of a red star signal may mean __________________.
A: "This is the best place to land"
B: "You are seen - assistance will be given as soon as
possible"
C: "Tail block is made fast"
D: "Slack away"
1025: Which group should be used to send the signal "Latitude
73ø25' North"?
A: G17325N
B: L7325N
C: LA7325N
D: N7325
1026: A life raft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean
service is required by regulations to carry ________.
A: 8 litres of fresh water
B: 8 units of provisions
C: 12 litres of fresh water
D: 24 units of provisions
1027: What is the most important characteristic of the
extinguishing agent in fighting a class "C" fire?
A: Weight
B: Temperature
C: Electrical nonconductivity
D: Cost
1028: Symptoms of heat stroke are _____.
A: cold and moist skin, high body temperature
B: cold and dry skin, low body temperature
C: hot and moist skin, high body temperature
D: hot and dry skin, high body temperature
1029: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the vessel
bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone regulations while
navigating?
A: Towing vessel 26 feet in length or greater
B: Passenger vessels of 100 gross tons or greater, carrying
one or more passengers for hire
C: Power-driven vessels 20 meters in length or greater
D: All of the above
1030: Which vessel(s) is(are) required to comply with the "Vessel
Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Regulations" while
navigating?
A: Towing vessels 25 feet or less in length, engaged in towing
operations
B: Passenger vessel 50 gross tons or less, carrying passengers
for hire
C: Dredges engaged in operations likely to restrict navigation
of other vessels in or near a channel or fairway
D: An intermittently manned floating plant under the control of
a dredge
1031: What is the major function of the deck water seal in an
inert gas system?
A: Relieve excessive overpressures in the system.
B: Isolate hazardous from nonhazardous areas.
C: Prevent the flow of inert gas into closed tanks.
D: Remove any leftover water or soot after the gas has
been scrubbed.
1032: When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide _____.
A: is effective if used promptly on an oil fire
B: has a greater cooling effect than water
C: is lighter than air
D: is harmless to cargo and crew
1033: Your vessel has been in a collision. After assessing the
damage, you begin down flooding. This will cause the KB to
do what?
A: Fall
B: Remain stationary
C: Rise
D: Shift to the high side
1034: Which vessels must comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge
radiotelephone regulations while navigating?
A: All towing vessels 26 feet in length or greater
B: All passenger vessels less than 100 gross tons
C: All power-driven vessels 12 meters or less in length
D: All of the above
1035: The letter G, when sent with a complement, may be followed
by ______.
A: two numerals
B: two letters
C: three or four numerals
D: four or five numerals
1036: Life preservers must be marked with the _________________.
A: stowage space assigned
B: vessel's name
C: vessel's home port
D: maximum weight allowed
1037: What is the minimum size power-driven vessel, not engaged in
towing, required to comply with the vessel bridge-to-bridge
radiotelephone regulations?
A: 50 meters
B: 25 meters
C: 20 meters
D: 12 meters
1038: You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a
radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United
States. You must _____.
A: maintain a listening watch and communicate in English
B: use the bridge-to-bridge VHF-FM designated frequency only to
exchange navigational information or necessary tests
C: have on board an operator who holds a restricted
radiotelephone operator permit or higher license, as well as
a FCC ship station license
D: All of the above
1039: On board small passenger vessels, fill lines and sounding
pipes of gasoline tanks must extend directly _____________.
A: to within one-half of their diameter from the bottom of
the tank
B: To within one-half foot from the bottom of the tank
C: To the tank top
D: Midway between the top and bottom of the tank
1040: General requirements for a vessel's radiotelephone station
log are that _______________________.
A: logs must be kept in an orderly manner
B: erasures are not allowed
C: it must identify the vessel's name and official number
D: All of the above
1041: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed.
There is already 2685 tons of cargo on board with a KG of
27.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo
after loading is completed.
A: KG 25.4 feet
B: KG 26.0 feet
C: KG 26.6 feet
D: KG 27.2 feet
1042: Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a
small enclosed space?
A: Damaged eardrums
B: Electric shock
C: Frostbite
D: Respiratory arrest
1043: Your vessel is damaged and on an even keel. There is no
trim. The freeboard is reduced to less than 1 foot. The
rolling period is very long, and the vessel is sluggish in
returning from a roll. Which action would you take FIRST to
improve stability?
A: In calm seas lower the lifeboats to the water and keep them
alongside.
B: Rig the jumbo boom and use it to jettison heavy deck cargo.
C: Press up a centerline double bottom that is now filled to
15% capacity.
D: Pump out the peak tanks simultaneously.
1044: What is the lifesaving signal for, "You are seen -
assistance will be given as soon as possible"?
A: Green star rocket
B: Red star rocket
C: Orange smoke signal
D: Horizontal motion of a flag
1045: Which group would be used to send the signal Greenwich mean
time 11:35 pm?
A: GMT 1135PM
B: T 2335 GMT
C: Z 2335
D: G 2335
1046: On small passenger vessels a gasoline tank vent
pipe must ___________.
A: have a cross sectional area not less than that of 3/4" OD
tubing
B: be connected to the tank at its highest point
C: terminate in a U-bend as high above the weather deck as
practicable
D: All of the above
1047: The main advantage of a steady stream of water on a class
"A" fire is that it _________________.
A: breaks up and cools the fire
B: protects the firefighting crew
C: removes the oxygen
D: washes the fire away
1048: The angle of maximum righting arm corresponds approximately
to the angle of _________________.
A: deck edge immersion
B: the load line
C: downflooding
D: loll
1049: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 2.62 feet
B: 2.82 feet
C: 2.97 feet
D: 3.15 feet
1050: A gasoline fuel tank vent on a small passenger vessel
should terminate ___________.
A: As close to the deck plates as possible
B: Below the waterline to eliminate the accumulation of
explosive vapors
C: Midway between the fuel tank and the engine
D: On the hull exterior as high above the waterline as
practicable and remote from any hull opening
1051: The fresh air intake of the inert gas system _____,
A: prevents the flue gas from falling below 3% content of
oxygen
B: allows the inert gas piping to be used for gas freeing the
tanks
C: opens when there is excessive vacuum on the deck water seal
D: enables outside air to mix with and cool hot flue gasses
1052: The danger associated with using carbon dioxide in an
enclosed space is ______________.
A: frostbite
B: skin burns
C: asphyxiation
D: an explosive reaction
1053: Your vessel is damaged and listing to port. The rolling
period is long, and the vessel will occasionally assume a
starboard list. Which action should you take FIRST?
A: Fill an empty double bottom tank on the starboard side
B: Transfer all possible movable weights from port to starboard
C: Pump out ballast from the port and starboard double bottom
tanks
D: Press up a slack centerline double bottom tank
1054: By day, the signal meaning, "This is the best place to land"
is a _________________.
A: vertical motion of a red flag
B: vertical motion of a white flag or the arms
C: white smoke signal
D: white star rocket
1055: The signal K4 sent by any method means _____________.
A: a distance of 4 miles
B: a speed of 4 knots
C: the wind is from the south
D: "I wish to communicate with you by sound signals"
1056: U.S.C.G. approved buoyant work vests are considered to be
items of safety equipment and may be worn by members of the
crew ________.
A: in lieu of life preservers during fire drills
B: in lieu of life preservers during boat drills
C: in lieu of life preservers during an actual emergency
D: when carrying out duties near a weather deck's edge
1057: The primary method by which water fog puts out fires is by
______.
A: removing the oxygen
B: cooling the fire below the ignition temperature
C: removing combustible material
D: diluting combustible vapors
1058: Which statement describes the relationship between flash
point and auto-ignition temperature?
A: Both are higher than normal burning temperatures.
B: The flash point is always higher.
C: The ignition temperature is always higher.
D: They are not necessarily related.
1059: Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture
content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally
possible to survive without water?
A: Up to 3 days
B: 8 to 14 days
C: 15 to 20 days
D: 25 to 30 days
1060: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the drafts.
A: FWD 26'-06", AFT 28'-10"
B: FWD 26'-10", AFT 28'-05"
C: FWD 27'-00", AFT 28'-03"
D: FWD 27'-03", AFT 28'-00"
1061: What are the symptoms of sun stroke?
A: Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble,
skin is cold and clammy.
B: Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, skin is hot
and dry.
C: Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, skin is
clammy.
D: Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, skin is
clammy.
1062: Weight is considered during the periodic required inspection
and servicing of _______________.
A: CO2 (carbon dioxide) fire extinguishers
B: foam fire extinguishers
C: water (stored pressure) fire extinguishers
D: All of the above
1063: Gasoline tank vent lines on board small passenger vessels
must be fitted with removable flame screens _____________.
A: and 30 square inches of louvers
B: three inches in diameter with a check valve to prevent
water from entering in heavy weather
C: three inches in circumference inside the fill pipe
D: consisting of a single screen of at least 30 X 30 mesh,
corrosion resistant wire
1064: By day, the horizontal motion of a white flag, or arms
extended horizontally, by a person on the beach indicates
_____________.
A: "Haul away"
B: "Tail block is made fast"
C: "Negative"
D: "Affirmative"
1065: Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your
life jacket and report to your station. After the cover is
removed you board your open lifeboat boat. The FIRST thing
to do is to _______.
A: release the gripes
B: release tricing pendants
C: put the cap on the drain
D: lift the brake handle
1066: Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests __________________.
A: may be substituted for 10 percent of the required life
preservers
B: should be stowed adjacent to lifeboats and emergency
stations
C: may be used by boat crews and line handlers during lifeboat
drills
D: should be used when carrying out duties near a weather
deck's edge
1067: A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most
effectively with _____________.
A: dry chemical
B: foam
C: high-velocity fog
D: Water (cartridge-operated)
1068: The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the ___________.
A: two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self
ignite
B: upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an
atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
C: upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will
not burn
D: two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an
ignition source is present
1069: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel
sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no
less frequently than every _____________.
A: Monday, Wednesday, and Friday
B: 48 hours
C: 36 hours
D: 24 hours
1070: On small passenger vessels, fuel lines may be made of _____.
A: plastic, rubber, or seamless steel tubing
B: stainless steel, iron, or brass
C: copper, plastic, stainless steel, or galvanized iron
D: annealed tubing of copper, nickel-copper, or copper nickel
1071: Aboard small passenger vessels, which material may be used
for diesel fuel line installations but not for gasoline fuel
lines?
A: Annealed copper tubing
B: Nickel-copper tubing
C: Copper-nickel tubing
D: Seamless steel pipe or tubing
1072: A combustible gas indicator will NOT operate correctly when
the _________.
A: hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the U.E.L
B: atmosphere is deficient in oxygen
C: distance between the operator and the compartment to be
tested is greater than 50 feet
D: All of the above
1073: Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is
listing 12ø to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It
has a long, slow, sluggish roll. Which action should you
take FIRST?
A: Press up an after, slack, centerline double bottom tank
B: Pump out the forepeak tank
C: Jettison the anchors and anchor cables
D: Jettison deck cargo from the port side
1074: Which one of the following signals is made at night by a
lifesaving station to indicate "Landing here highly
dangerous"?
A: Horizontal motion of a white light or flare
B: Vertical motion of a white light or flare
C: White star rocket
D: Vertical motion of a red light or flare
1075: Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to
check is the _______________.
A: oars
B: sail
C: boat plug
D: life preservers
1076: The life jackets on all vessels shall be _________.
A: inspected weekly
B: worn at all times
C: readily available
D: tested yearly
1077: A vessel's KG is determined by _____.
A: dividing the total longitudinal moment summation by
displacement
B: dividing the total vertical moment summation by displacement
C: multiplying the MT1 by the longitudinal moments
D: subtracting LCF from LCB
1078: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is
______.
A: 0% to 1% by volume
B: 1% to 6% by volume
C: 6% to 12% by volume
D: 12% to 20% by volume
1079: What alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?
A: Low oxygen alarm
B: Low pressure alarm
C: Scrubber high water level alarm
D: Deck seal low water alarm
1080: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located
in a MARPOL designated special area, 14 nautical miles from
nearest land. What type of garbage is permitted to be
discharged?
A: Paper products
B: Glass ground to less than 1"
C: Metal ground to less than 1"
D: Food waste
1081: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT
_________.
A: heat
B: oxygen
C: fuel
D: electricity
1082: Which statement is TRUE concerning combustible gas
indicators?
A: One sample of air is adequate to test a tank.
B: They do not work properly where there is a lack of oxygen.
C: They will detect a lack of oxygen.
D: They are calibrated to read the percentage chance of
explosion.
1083: On board small passenger vessels, fittings used in a
gasoline supply line must be ___.
A: made of non-ferrous metal, and be a flare or non-bite
flareless type
B: an interlocking type
C: a silver-soldered type
D: an asbestos covered type
1084: On small passenger vessels, what type of devices are
required at both the tank and engine connections of all
internal combustion engine fuel lines?
A: Clean out plates
B: Fuel gauges
C: Drain valves
D: Shut-off valves
1085: When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to
rig frapping lines ____________________________.
A: on only the forward falls
B: on only the after falls
C: with a lead of about 45 degrees to the boat
D: from the falls to the main deck of the vessel
1086: Required lifesaving equipment on existing vessels may be
continued in use on the vessel if ____________________.
A: kept on board no more than 2 years
B: inspected and serviced every 6 months
C: destroyed if more than 5 years old
D: maintained in good and serviceable condition
1087: A combination or all-purpose nozzle produces ___________.
A: low-velocity fog only
B: a solid stream only
C: a solid stream and foam
D: a solid stream and fog
1088: The flash point of a liquid means the temperature
________.
A: at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors
B: at which a liquid will burn steadily
C: at which a liquid will explode
D: that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily
1089: During counterflooding to correct a severe list aggravated
by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list or
trim to the opposite side. You should ________________.
A: continue counterflooding in the same direction
B: continue counterflooding, but in the opposite direction
C: immediately stop counterflooding
D: deballast from the low side
1090: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 1.80 feet
B: 1.89 feet
C: 1.98 feet
D: 2.05 feet
1091: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 2.49 feet
B: 2.38 feet
C: 2.27 feet
D: 2.05 feet
1092: Which statement is TRUE concerning a combustible gas
indicator?
A: Several seconds will elapse between the taking of a sample
and the reading appearing on the dial.
B: The instrument will operate in any atmosphere.
C: Toxicity of the atmosphere is measured by the instrument.
D: All of the above
1093: On small passenger vessels, which device(s) must be
fitted to a fuel line's tank connection?
A: A fuel strainer
B: A shut-off valve
C: A tubular glass gauge to indicate the fuel level
D: All of the above
1094: A small craft advisory forecasts winds of up to what speed?
A: 16 kts.
B: 24 kts.
C: 33 kts.
D: 48 kts.
1095: When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged
_____.
A: before the gripes are released
B: before the boat is moved from the davits
C: at the embarkation deck
D: after the boat is in the water
1096: What is the minimum number of ring life buoys required
on board a 275-foot self-propelled cargo vessel engaged in
coastwise trade, operating 15 miles off the east coast of
the United States?
1097: Foam extinguishes a fire by ________________.
A: shutting off the air supply
B: cooling the fuel to below ignition temperature
C: dispersing the fuel
D: removing the source of ignition
1098: Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a
substance?
A: It is lower than the ignition temperature.
B: It is the temperature at which a substance will
spontaneously ignite.
C: It is the temperature at which a substance, when ignited,
will continue to burn.
D: It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall
within the explosive range.
1099: On small passenger vessels, shut-off valves must be
installed on both gasoline and diesel fuel supply lines
_____________.
A: at the tank and the engine end of the fuel line
B: outside the engineroom on the fill and vent lines
C: only at the tank end of the fuel line
D: only at the engine end of the fuel line
1100: The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity
davits is controlled by the _________.
A: limit switches
B: emergency disconnect switch
C: governor brake
D: position of the counterweight on the brake handle
1101: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the
right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure?
A: Rub the toes briskly.
B: Elevate the foot slightly.
C: Rewarm rapidly.
D: Give aspirin or other medication for pain if necessary.
1102: While using a combustible gas indicator, if the hydrocarbon
content of the atmosphere exceeds the U.E.L., the needle of
the indicator will ___________________________.
A: remain at zero without moving
B: move to the maximum reading and stay there
C: move halfway up the scale
D: move to the maximum reading and immediately return to zero
1103: A vessel is "listed" when it is ______________________.
A: inclined due to an off-center weight
B: inclined due to the wind
C: down by the head
D: down by the stern
1104: When there is a small craft advisory winds are predicted up
to ______.
A: 15 knots
B: 24 knots
C: 33 knots
D: 42 knots
1105: In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be
released?
A: Before the boat is lowered from the stowage position
B: As soon as the boat-fall blocks clear the davit head
C: After the limit switch is activated
D: After all people have been embarked
1106: On small passenger vessels, when may a flexible hose
be used in gasoline or diesel fuel lines?
A: In diesel installations only
B: In gasoline installations only
C: In both diesel and gasoline installations
D: In neither diesel nor gasoline installations
1107: In the production of chemical foam by a continuous-type
generator __________________.
A: the maximum water pressure to be used is 50 psi
B: the speed of foam production is slower at lower water
temperatures
C: each pound of foam powder produces about 800 gallons of
chemical foam
D: fresh water only should be used
1108: The vapor pressure of a substance ______________.
A: increases with the temperature
B: decreases as temperature increases
C: is not affected by temperature
D: may increase or decrease as the temperature rises
1109: On small passenger vessels, drains or outlets for
drawing off diesel fuel from water traps or strainers must
____________.
A: be located at the lowest portion of the tank
B: have only a gravity-forced flow
C: be extended to an external area of the hull
D: are permitted
1110: Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by ______.
A: the engineers, from a panel in the engine room
B: shutting off the current to the winch
C: pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running
D: All of the above
1111: On small passenger vessels, outlets in fuel lines are
permitted ___________.
A: to tap fuel for cleaning parts and engine wash down
B: for inspection purposes only
C: to bleed fuel lines
D: under no circumstances in gasoline installations
1112: A combustible gas indicator meter is calibrated to read the
percentage of ___________________.
A: vapor to oxygen
B: the flammable limit concentration
C: the autoignition concentration
D: the lower explosive limit concentration
1113: Releasing oil from the sea anchor of a lifeboat may
________.
A: keep the propeller from being fouled
B: increase propeller speed
C: help calm the waves in the vicinity of the craft
D: increase the holding power of the sea anchor
1114: The National Weather Service differentiates between small
craft, gale, whole gale, and hurricane warnings by the
_____.
A: amount of rain forecasted
B: wave heights forecasted
C: amount of cloud cover forecasted
D: wind speed forecasted
1115: When launching a lifeboat, the tricing pennants should be
released _________________.
A: before the boat is lowered from the stowed position
B: as the boat-fall blocks break clear of the davit head
C: before the boat is lowered from the embarkation level
D: after the boat is released into the water
1116: Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain ________.
A: two rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type
B: three rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type
C: four rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type
D: five rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type
1117: Production of mechanical foam by a portable in-line foam
proportioner _______________.
A: increases the size of foam bubbles formed
B: increases the rate of foam production
C: improves the extinguishing properties of foam
D: gives the nozzleman more freedom of movement, since it can
be placed anywhere in the hose line
1118: The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by it's
________________.
A: ignition temperature
B: flash point
C: flammable range
D: conversion index
1119: A fill pipe for a gasoline tank on board a small
passenger vessel must be ________.
A: arranged so neither liquid gasoline nor its vapors can
overflow or escape inside the vessel
B: terminated on the weather deck and extend to within one-half
of its diameter from the bottom of the tank
C: fitted with a suitably marked watertight deckplate or screw
cap
D: All of the above
1120: You will find a limit switch on a __________.
A: life raft cradle
B: radial davit
C: sheath-screw davit
D: gravity davit
1121: In illustration DO11SA, number 1 operates the __________.
A: releasing gear
B: McCluny hook
C: sea painter
D: Fleming gear
1122: A combustible gas indicator will operate correctly ONLY when
the ________.
A: hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere is less than the
U.E.L.
B: atmosphere is deficient in oxygen
C: compartment to be tested is free of CO2
D: All of the above
1123: On small passenger vessels, all spaces containing
gasoline-powered machinery or gasoline storage
tanks must be ventilated with _____________.
A: mechanical air supply fans and natural exhaust
B: natural air supply and mechanical exhaust fans
C: cowls and scoops which can be closed during foul weather
D: air conditioning to control moisture
1124: Spaces containing gasoline-powered machinery or
gasoline storage tanks on small passenger vessels
should have ventilator ducts that extend to the bilges
because _____________.
A: air is heavier than gas fumes
B: oil and water mix there
C: it prevents air from entering or leaving the space
D: Gasoline vapors are heavier than air, tend to settle in
the bilges, and creat an explosion hazard
1125: What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea
while utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?
A: Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your vessel with
the wind about broad on the bow of your ship.
B: Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your ship with
the wind about broad on the bow of your ship.
C: Place your ship to windward of the lifeboat with the wind on
the quarter to allow your ship to drift down to the
lifeboat.
D: Place the lifeboat ahead and to windward of your ship with
the wind about broad on the quarter of your ship.
1126: Aboard small passenger vessels which type(s) of ventilation
must be provided for enclosed spaces containing gasoline
engines or gasoline fuel tanks?
A: Natural supply and mechanical exhaust
B: At least one opening to the exterior of the hull
C: Mechanical supply and natural exhaust
D: Any of the above
1127: Compared to the amount of concentrated foam liquid used, the
amount of low expansion mechanical foam produced is _______.
A: 97 times greater
B: 94 times greater
C: 10 times greater
D: 2 times greater
1128: Most small passenger vessels have an auxiliary steering
arrangement. According to the regulations, which is
acceptable as a substitute for the auxiliary steering
system?
A: A threefold purchase, rove to advantage
B: A spare rudder, stowed so it can be readily mounted
C: A suitable hand tiller, approved by the OCMI
D: All of the above
1129: What is NOT a function of the scrubber of an inert gas
system?
A: Cool the inert gas
B: Remove particulate matter like soot
C: Maintain pressure in the tanks
D: Remove chemical impurities
1130: What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?
A: To cut off the power when the davits hit the track safety
stops
B: To stop the davits from going too fast
C: To cut off the power when the davits are about 12 inches or
more from the track safety stops
D: None of the above
1131: If you observe any situation which presents a safety or
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, what
action should you take FIRST?
A: Close the valves at the transfer manifold
B: Notify the person in charge of the shore facility
C: Shut down the transfer operation
D: Sound the fire alarm
1132: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, how long should exhaust
blowers be operated in enclosed spaces containing gasoline
powered machinery before starting the engine?
A: For at least four to five minutes
B: Long enough to achieve a minimum of two complete air changes
C: Long enough to achieve at least one complete change of air
D: No fixed amount, but the blower should run until you
don't smell any gas
1133: If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you
should _______________.
A: protect your life preserver by holding it above your head
B: enter the water on the windward side of the vessel
C: keep both hands in front of your face to break the water
surface when diving head first
D: wear very light clothing
1134: On board small passenger vessels, ducts for compartments
which contain gasoline powered machinery or gasoline storage
tanks ________________.
A: must not allow any appreciable vapor flow except through
their normal openings
B: must be of rigid, permanent construction
C: must lead as directly as possible and be properly fastened
and supported
D: All of the above
1135: Which statement about the bilge piping system of "T-Boats"
that are more than 26 feet in length is NOT correct?
A: Each watertight compartment must have its own bilge suction
line or pump
B: Each space's bilge suction connection to a manifold must
have stop and check valves, or a stop-check valve
C: All bilge piping must be at least 2" inside-diameter brass
pipe
D: Bilge suction strainers must have an open area not less
than three times the area of the bilge pipe
1136: The breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets
used with line throwing appliances is ________________.
A: 300 lbs
B: 500 lbs
C: 1000 lbs
D: 1500 lbs
1137: One gallon of low expansion foam solution will produce about
_________.
A: 10 gallons of foam
B: 25 gallons of foam
C: 100 gallons of foam
D: 500 gallons of foam
1138: What is LEAST likely to cause ignition of fuel vapors?
A: Static electricity
B: An open running electric motor
C: Loose wiring
D: Explosion proof lights
1139: You are at the helm of a sloop-rigged sailing vessel under
sail on the port tack, on a beam reach, with all
appropriate sails set and properly trimmed. You are
instructed to "head up quickly". To utilize your sails to
assist with the turn, you should ___________________.
A: slack the main sheet
B: slack the main outhaul
C: trim the foreguy
D: slack the jib sheet
1140: Limit switches are used on which davits?
A: Sheath-screw davits
B: Gravity davits
C: Radial davits
D: Quadrantal davits
1141: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 2.15 feet
B: 2.05 feet
C: 1.85 feet
D: 1.52 feet
1142: While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25%
oxygen in the tank. You would then _______.
A: enter the tank safely
B: suspect the accuracy of the reading
C: ventilate the tank
D: test for nitrogen
1143: For pumping the bilges, a 54 foot long "T-Boat", which is
not a ferry, but is certificated to carry 30 passengers,
must be fitted with at least ____________________.
A: one fixed power pump and one portable hand pump
B: one fixed hand pump and one portable hand pump
C: two portable hand pumps
D: either "A" or "B"
1144: Aboard a 60 foot long small passenger vessel (other than a
ferry) which is certificated to carry 33 persons, the
minimum capacity required per bilge pump is ____________.
A: 10 gallons per minute
B: 19 gallons per minute
C: 38 gallons per minute
D: 50 gallons per minute
1145: When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an
electric motor driven winch, the davit arms should be
brought up __________.
A: to their final position with the winch operating at slow
speed
B: to the bar stop, and then hand cranked to their final
position
C: until just before they make contact with the limit switch,
and then hand cranked to their final position
D: to the embarkation deck, and then hand cranked to their
final position
1146: Which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line
throwing appliance?
A: An oceangoing vessel of 140 GT
B: A coastwise vessel of 550 GT
C: An river-going vessel of 760 GT
D: All of the above
1147: In addition to a portable hand-operated bilge pump, a 55
foot long ferry must have a fixed power operated bilge pump
capable of pumping at least ___________.
A: 5 GPM
B: 10 GPM
C: 25 GPM
D: 50 GPM
1148: Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in _________.
A: rags soaked in linseed oil
B: overloaded electrical circuits
C: dirty swabs and cleaning gear
D: partially loaded fuel tanks
1149: If the metacentric height is small, a vessel will ________.
A: be tender
B: have a quick and rapid motion
C: be stiff
D: yaw
1150: After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit
arms begin moving up the tracks and are stopped by the ____.
A: hoist man
B: limit switch
C: brake handle
D: preventer bar
1151: Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of _____.
A: cooling, removing to shaded area, and lying down
B: bathing with rubbing alcohol
C: drinking ice water
D: All of the above
1152: Hand tillers are only accepted as an auxiliary means of
steering if __________.
A: they are at least 6 feet long
B: they are not operated through a reduction gear
C: they are found satisfactory by the cognizant OCMI
D: Both A and C above
1153: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic and other
non-metallic piping materials __________.
A: may replace metal pipe or tubing in any installation
B: may not be used on inspected vessels
C: may only be used in non-vital systems
D: are preferable to steel pipe
1154: On a small passenger vessel, backfire flame arrestors are
installed on a/an __________.
A: oil fired turbine or reciprocating steam engine
B: turbocharged diesel engine
C: natural gas (propane) engine
D: gasoline powered engine
1155: When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, the
sea painter should be secured ______________________.
A: well forward in the lifeboat
B: about amidships in the lifeboat
C: well aft in the lifeboat
D: only after the falls have been attached
1156: Which statement is TRUE concerning the testing of the
line-throwing appliance?
A: It shall be fired at least once in every three months.
B: A drill in its use shall be held once in every 3 months.
C: Drills shall be held quarterly and it shall be fired
annually.
D: No drills are required.
1157: When using the combustible gas indicator, a special filter
for filtering the incoming sample must be used if the
atmosphere being tested contains vapors of ______________.
A: sour crude
B: leaded gasoline
C: CO2
D: chlorine
1158: Spontaneous combustion is caused by __________________.
A: an outside heat source heating a substance until it ignites
B: conduction of heat through a wall of material to the
substance
C: chemical action within a substance
D: All of the above
1159: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed.
There is already 3315 tons of cargo on board with a KG of
27.0 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo
after loading is completed.
A: KG 26.2 feet
B: KG 27.4 feet
C: KG 28.6 feet
D: KG 30.1 feet
1160: Frapping lines ___________.
A: secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed
position
B: bring the lifeboat close alongside the rail in the
embarkation position
C: give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being
lowered from the embarkation level
D: reduce the swinging of the lifeboat at the embarkation level
1161: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the
signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do?
A: Give the vessel a wide berth as she is carrying dangerous
goods.
B: Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she
is disabled.
C: Stop your vessel instantly.
D: Slow your vessel and keep well clear because she has a diver
down.
1162: Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of
explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapors in tanks?
A: A flame safety lamp
B: A combustible gas indicator
C: A liquid cargo meter
D: All of the above
1163: Individual wires, used in systems greater than
50 volts, ___________________.
A: should be supported at 24 inch intervals with plastic tie
wraps
B: should never be located in a tank
C: must be installed in conduit
D: All of the above
1164: A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing
appliance at least once in every _________________.
A: 2 months
B: 3 months
C: 4 monhs
D: 5 months
1165: When in command of a lifeboat under oars, the command
"Backwater" means to _______________________.
A: lift oars to vertical position, trim blades fore and aft
with handles resting on footings
B: complete the stroke, come to "Oars", raise oars smartly to
vertical, rest handles on footing, trim blades fore and
aft
C: row in astern motion
D: complete stroke, stop rowing, dip blade about halfway into
water, hold water to stop the way on the boat
1166: What is NOT a requirement for testing the line throwing
appliance on a vessel?
A: The appliance should be tested every three months.
B: A regular service line should be used when testing.
C: A regular projectile should be used when testing.
D: An entry about the test must be made in the Official
Log Book.
1167: A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a
ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the
combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the
pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases?
A: In the lower level of the pumproom
B: In the middle level of the pumproom
C: In the upper level of the pumproom
D: On the deck outside the pumproom
1168: What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming
combustion will no longer occur?
A: 1%
B: 10%
C: 15%
D: 21%
1169: Your vessel's draft is 24'-06" forward and aft. The MT1 of
your vessel is 1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be
loaded in number 4 hold, which is 100 feet abaft the tipping
center, if she is to have a 2 foot drag?
A: 120 tons
B: 240 tons
C: 300 tons
D: 480 tons
1170: When operating gravity davits, the _______________.
A: gripes should be released after the boat is moving
B: davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into
the final stowed position
C: boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around
cruciform bitts
D: tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the
gripes
1171: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 2.62 feet
B: 2.82 feet
C: 2.97 feet
D: 3.15 feet
1172: What could result in an incorrect oxygen concentration
reading on the oxygen indicator?
A: Exposure to carbon dioxide for no more than 1 minute
B: Exposure to carbon dioxide for more than 10 minutes
C: Exposure to a very low concentration of sulfur dioxide for
no more than 2 minutes
D: None of the above
1173: On small passenger vessels all connections to electrical
conductors MUST be ________.
A: made within enclosures
B: served and parcelled with the lay, turned and wormed the
other way
C: installed only by a licensed marine electrician
D: inspected annually by the Coast Guard
1174: In general, batteries aboard small passenger vessels
should be ________.
A: covered to reduce accidental sparking and electrical
discharge by metal objects falling across terminals
B: stowed in well-ventilated spaces to allow dissipation of any
gases generated
C: as high above the bilge as practicable, secure against
shifting, and free from exposure to water splash or spray
D: All of the above
1175: When in command of a lifeboat under oars, the command "Toss
oars" means to ___________________.
A: lift oars to vertical position, trim blades fore and aft
with handles resting on the thwarts
B: complete the stroke, come to "Oars", raise the oars smartly
to the vertical, rest handles on footings and trim blades
fore and aft
C: place oars in row locks directly from the boated position or
from "Stand by oars" position
D: complete the stroke (when rowing in ahead motion), raise the
oars with crook of elbow to about 30 degrees, swing blades
forward
1176: Your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line
throwing appliance. The auxiliary line must _________.
A: be of a light color
B: be 250 meters in length
C: have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs force
D: be made of synthetic material
1177: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 1.20 feet
B: 1.64 feet
C: 2.26 feet
D: 3.00 feet
1178: The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained
combustion of a substance independent of any outside source
of ignition is called ______.
A: explosive range
B: flash point
C: ignition temperature
D: combustion temperature
1179: Storage batteries on T-Boats must be located __________.
A: in sight of the main engine(s)
B: in a tray lined with suitable material that resists damage
from the electrolyte
C: where gas generated by charging can not enter the engine
spaces
D: near the bilge to lower the center of gravity and improve
stability
1180: When using the hand crank on gravity davits, you should
ALWAYS _____.
A: make sure the hand brake is disengaged
B: put the emergency disconnect switch in the off position
C: make sure the crank is in the locked position
D: disconnect the limit switch
1181: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed.
There is already 4145 tons of cargo on board with a KG of
25.5 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo
after loading is completed.
A: KG 25.0 feet
B: KG 25.6 feet
C: KG 26.2 feet
D: KG 26.8 feet
1182: An oxygen indicator can be used to determine if there is
_________.
A: sufficient oxygen in a compartment to support life
B: combustible gases present
C: hydrogen gas present
D: All of the above
1183: The engine in a covered lifeboat is fueled with __________.
A: kerosene
B: unleaded gasoline
C: diesel oil
D: liquefied gas
1184: If an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where
should the operating cord be attached before throwing the
raft overboard?
A: Do not attach the cord to anything but throw it overboard
with the raft container.
B: Attach the cord to a fixed object on the ship.
C: You should stand on the cord.
D: Attach the cord to the special pad eye on the "raft davit
launcher".
1185: If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "Way
enough", you should _____________.
A: complete the stroke, hold your oar out from the boat and
level with the water
B: dip the blade of your oar into the water and leave it there
C: lift your oar to a vertical position
D: complete the stroke, raise your oar slightly, swing it
forward, and place it in the boat
1186: On a rigid life raft which is equipped with all of the
required equipment you may NOT find a ___________.
A: boathook
B: fishing kit
C: lifeline or grab rail
D: sea painter
1187: A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to ___________.
A: make underwater repairs to barges
B: determine if the air in a tank is safe for men
C: enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen
D: resuscitate an unconscious person
1188: The most effective way to apply a foam stream if the fire is
on deck or is a running fire, is to direct the stream _____.
A: onto the surface of the burning liquid
B: ahead of the burning liquid and bounce it on the fire
C: at the base of the burning liquid in a sweeping motion
D: just above the surface of the burning liquid
1189: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 2.62 feet
B: 2.82 feet
C: 2.97 feet
D: 3.15 feet
1190: What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of
lifeboat winches and davits?
A: Moisture accumulation in winch motor damaging the
electrical wiring
B: Freezing of gears in cold weather
C: Corroding of sheaves on the davits so they will not rotate
D: All of the above
1191: According to the T-Boat regulations the reason for
providing adequate ventilation for a battery storage
area is to prevent ___________.
A: accumulation of carbon dioxide gas that chokes the battery
B: accumulation of explosive and toxic gases the battery can
generate
C: mildew or dry rot in the battery box
D: battery failure including battery case meltdown caused by
excessive heat
1192: Which statement is TRUE concerning the oxygen indicator?
A: Exposure to flue gas has no effect on the instrument.
B: Only one level of the tested space need be sampled by the
instrument.
C: Prolonged exposure to CO2 can result in false readings.
D: The instrument can detect hydrogen gas.
1193: On small passenger, vessels spaces containing batteries
require good ventilation because it _______________.
A: adds as much as 2 volts to battery performance
B: supplies extra nitrogen for the battery
C: helps dissipate flammable gas accumulations
D: allows less soda water to be used in the diodes
1194: Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable
liferaft by hand?
A: Open the liferaft casing.
B: Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation.
C: Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before
throwing it over the side.
D: After inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft.
1195: The command "Oars" means to ___________________________.
A: lift the oars to a vertical position
B: complete the stroke and bring the oars horizontal, blades
feathered
C: place the oars in the boat with blades forward
D: place the oars in the rowlocks directly from the boated
position
1196: The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be
located ________.
A: in one of the equipment bags
B: in a special pocket near the forward entrance
C: on a cord hanging from the canopy
D: in a pocket on the first aid kit
1197: A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire-
extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be
____________________.
A: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more
than 15%
B: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more
than 25%
C: replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
D: labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
1198: Lead-acid batteries used aboard "T-Boats" must have
terminal connections that are ___________.
A: the spring slip style
B: a permanent type
C: located so as to be easily greased
D: temporarily clamped on the top of the battery
1199: To prevent damage by and to storage batteries aboard
small passenger vessels they should be located ___________.
A: in trays constructed of material that is resistant to the
electrolyte
B: so as to prevent movement when the vessel pitches and rolls
C: in a well ventilated area
D: All of the above
1200: What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?
A: They are used to steady a lifeboat when lowered.
B: They are normally attached to the davit span.
C: They are needed only on radial davits.
D: They are used to clear the puddings.
1201: While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose leaks causing a
sheen on the water. You should ________________.
A: apply dispersants to the sheen
B: repair the leak with duct tape
C: reduce the rate of transfer
D: shut down operations
1202: Which is the most accurate instrument for measuring the
amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space?
A: Combustible gas indicator
B: Oxygen indicator
C: Flame safety lamp
D: All of the above
1203: You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in
operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being
pumped starts to drop below the allowable limit. What
action should you take?
A: Cut in another IG fan to increase gas flow.
B: Open the pressure control valve until the pressure
increases.
C: Open the tank isolation valve to the fully open position.
D: Reduce the pumping rate.
1204: Generally, when lifting an inflatable life raft back aboard
ship you would use the ___________________.
A: towing bridle
B: main weather cover
C: external lifelines
D: righting strap
1205: On board small passenger vessels, storage batteries
containing an electrolyte must be set in trays
constructed of _____________.
A: a fireproof material
B: a material resistant to damage by the electrolyte
C: a porous material that permits drainage of any acid
overflow
D: suitably strong to hold the weight
of the batteries
1206: Inflatable life rafts are provided with a _______________.
A: knife
B: towing connection
C: lifeline
D: All of the above
1207: Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress
fire?
A: CO2
B: Foam
C: Dry Chemical
D: Water
1208: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the _________.
A: decrease in KM is equal to the loss of draft
B: virtual rise of G is directly proportional to the remaining
draft
C: lost buoyancy method is used to calculate KM, and KB is
reduced
D: displacement lost acts at the point where the ship is
aground
1209: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the purpose of fuses in
electric wiring is to ________.
A: allow for cutting out branch circuits
B: prevent overloading the circuits
C: reduce voltage to the branch circuits
D: permit the use of smaller wiring for lighting circuits
1210: The tricing pendants should be released ___________________.
A: before the gripes are removed
B: before loading the passengers
C: after loading the passengers
D: after the boat is afloat
1211: A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given
____________________.
A: a small dose of alcohol
B: treatment for shock
C: a large meal
D: a brisk rub down
1212: Ambient air, which you normally breathe, contains what
percent of oxygen?
A: 6%
B: 10%
C: 15%
D: 21%
1213: When a wind force causes a vessel to heel to a static angle,
the ______.
A: centers of buoyancy and gravity are in the same vertical
line
B: righting moment equals the wind-heeling moment
C: center of buoyancy remains the same
D: deck-edge immersion occurs
1214: An inflatable life raft should be lifted back aboard the
ship by using _______________.
A: the single hook at the top of the raft
B: two lines passed under the raft
C: the towing bridle
D: All of the above
1215: According to the regulations for small passenger
vessels, fuses and circuit breakers are used in
electrical circuits to ___________.
A: keep equipment from shutting off unexpectedly
B: prevent voltage fluctuations
C: keep the circuit from becoming overloaded or overheated
D: make the operator inspect his wiring periodically after the
fuses blow
1216: After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry
inside by ________.
A: opening the automatic drain plugs
B: draining the water pockets
C: using the electric bilge pump
D: using the bailers and cellulose sponge
1217: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for
use on electrical fires?
A: Dry chemical and carbon dioxide
B: Foam (stored pressure) and soda-acid
C: Carbon dioxide and foam (stored pressure)
D: Dry chemical and soda-acid
1218: To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released
from a fixed extinguishing system, you should ____________.
A: wear a canister type gas mask
B: test the air with an Orsat apparatus
C: test the air with a pure air indicator
D: wear a self-contained breathing apparatus
1219: 46 CFR Subchapter T requires that rigid plastic or other
non-metallic piping __________.
A: only be used in non-vital systems
B: not be used in gasoline or diesel fuel systems
C: have approved metallic fittings and cutoff valves where it
penetrates a watertight deck or bulkhead
D: All of the above
1220: Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while
passengers are boarding are _________________.
A: life lines
B: frapping lines
C: tricing lines
D: tripping lines
1221: Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to
fall below the prescribed limits?
A: Loading
B: Discharging
C: Crude oil washing
D: Steaming tanks
1222: After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument
should be purged with _________________.
A: CO2
B: fresh air
C: the tested compartment's air
D: water
1223: The survival craft carried aboard a commercial fishing
vessel must safely accommodate _____________.
A: all of the people aboard
B: the number of people required by the certificate of
inspection
C: the entire crew
D: None of the above are correct.
1224: In order to retrieve an inflatable life raft and place it
on deck, you should heave on the _____________.
A: lifelines
B: righting strap
C: sea anchor
D: towing bridle
1225: If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "HOLD
WATER" you should _________________.
A: complete the stroke, raise your oar slightly, swinging the
oar slightly forward, and place it in the boat
B: lift the oar in a vertical position
C: complete the stroke and hold the oar out of the water
D: dip the blade of your oar into the water vertically and hold
it perpendicular to the keel line
1226: For what purpose may gasoline be used on small passenger
vessels?
A: Heating
B: Lighting
C: Cooking
D: None of the above
1227: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed
for use on flammable liquid fires?
A: Foam (stored-pressure)
B: Water (cartridge-operated)
C: Dry chemical
D: Carbon dioxide
1228: When approaching a fire from leeward, you should shield
firefighters from the fire by using ___________________.
A: low-velocity fog
B: high-velocity fog
C: a straight stream of water
D: foam spray
1229: Which T-Boat must be fitted with a suitable compass?
A: A vessel in river service
B: A vessel operating on a short, restricted route on lakes,
bays, and sounds
C: A vessel engaged in ocean or coastwise service
D: The regulations do not require a compass on any
vessel
1230: The purpose of the tricing pendants is to _________________.
A: control the fore and aft motion of a lifeboat during
lowering
B: control the outboard swing of a lifeboat during lowering
C: provide suspensions for the manropes
D: hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck while loading
1231: A "T-Boat" accident resulting in loss of life, serious
injury or more than $25,000 property damage must be reported
to ______________.
A: the Maritime Administration (MARAD)
B: the Coast Guard
C: the owner or his insurance agent
D: All of the above
1232: A marine chemist issues gas free certificates and is
certified by which organization?
A: Mine Safety Appliance Association
B: American Chemical Society
C: Marine Chemists Association
D: National Fire Protection Association
1233: The owner, agent, Master or person-in-charge of a small
passenger vessel involved in a marine casualty is NOT
required to notify the Coast Guard in cases where
there is ____________.
A: property damage less than $25,000
B: no injury which requires more than first aid treatment
C: death or injury to a shipyard worker or harbor worker not
resulting from the vessel casualty
D: All of the above
1234: When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong
current running parallel to the beach (from right to left
when facing from seaward) the recommended procedure is to
_____________.
A: approach while coming to the left to take advantage of the
current
B: drop an anchor outside the surf line, then pay out anchor
line over the bow while the seas carry the boat toward the
beach
C: approach slow enough so that the boat can be brought around
to meet breaking seas on the bow
D: rig a drogue with tripping line over the bow, back ashore
with drogue tripped between breakers
1235: Which procedure should NOT be done for a person who has
fainted?
A: Revive the person with smelling salts.
B: Loosen the clothing.
C: Lay the person horizontally.
D: Give pain reliever.
1236: Inflatable liferafts are provided with _____________.
A: a portable radio
B: an oil lantern
C: canned milk
D: a towing connection
1237: Portable-foam fire extinguishers are designed for use on
what classes of fires?
A: A and B
B: A and C
C: B and C
D: A, B, and C
1238: When attempting to enter a compartment containing a fire,
which method of applying water is best?
A: High-velocity fog stream directed toward the overhead
B: Straight stream directed into the center of the fire
C: Sweeping the compartment with a fog stream
D: Solid stream directed toward the overhead
1239: With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed
lifeboat will be _____________.
A: changing in relation to the speed of the craft
B: less than outside air pressure
C: greater than outside air pressure
D: equal to outside air pressure
1240: On open lifeboats, the purpose of the wire stretched between
the davit heads is to ______.
A: keep the movement of the davits at the same speed
B: keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed
position
C: prevent vibration during lowering of the boat
D: support the manropes
1241: Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of
gravity of 21.5 feet above the keel. You run aground and
estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. The virtual rise
in the center of gravity is _____________.
A: 1.26 feet
B: 3.80 feet
C: 4.80 feet
D: 5.66 feet
1242: The bosun has thrown the liferaft into the water before
abandoning the vessel. The operating cord ___________.
A: serves as a sea painter
B: detaches from the liferaft automatically
C: is used to rig the boarding ladder
D: is cut immediately as it is of no further use
1243: What is TRUE about hoisting operations?
A: Personnel may work beneath suspended loads, as long as they
are alert and wear hard hats.
B: If a suspended load with no tag begins to spin, personnel
should attempt to stop the spinning if the load is within
reach.
C: If tag lines are used to control a suspended load, they
should be secured to the deck.
D: Personnel not involved in the hoisting operation should be
kept clear of the transfer area.
1244: The painter on a rigid life raft shall be of _____.
A: nylon line not less than 2 in. in circumference
B: hemp line not less than 2-1/4 in. in circumference
C: cotton cord not less than 2-1/2 in. in circumference
D: manila line not less than 2-3/4 in. in circumference
1245: The Master of a small passenger vessel fitted with loading
doors must ensure that the doors are closed, watertight and
secured ______________.
A: at all times when underway on a voyage on unprotected
waters
B: when leaving the dock
C: when loading cargo
D: at all times, at the dock or underway when the loading door
is not actually being used for passage
1246: Inflatable life rafts are provided with ___________________.
A: a Very pistol
B: a towing connection
C: a portable radio
D: canned milk
1247: The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to __________.
A: spray directly on the base of the fire
B: flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface
C: sweep the fire with the foam
D: spray directly on the surface of the fire
1248: In the event of fire in a machinery space, ________________.
A: the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all
other means of extinguishment have failed
B: the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately,
as it is the most efficient means of extinguishment
C: water in any form should not be used as it will spread the
fire
D: the space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to
prevent injury to personnel
1249: Which area is designated a special area by Annex V to MARPOL
A: Gulf of Mexico
B: Sargasso Sea
C: Red Sea
D: Great Lakes
1250: The falls on gravity davits are ___________.
A: manila
B: nylon
C: wire
D: All of the above
1251: The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is _______.
A: tea
B: coffee
C: whiskey and water
D: ammonia inhalant
1252: When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical fire
extinguisher, the stream should be directed _______________.
A: over the top of the flames
B: off a bulkhead into the fire
C: in front of the fire
D: at the base of the fire
1253: If there are no alternatives for escape, what is the maximum
height that the survival craft could be dropped into the
water?
A: 2 ft.
B: 6 ft.
C: 10 ft.
D: 14 ft.
1254: The painter of the inflatable life raft has a length of
__________.
A: 6 fathoms
B: 50 feet
C: 100 feet
D: 300 feet
1255: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine
indicating that a torpedo has been fired in a training
exercise is ____________.
A: white
B: green
C: yellow
D: red
1256: The water pockets located on the underside of inflatable
liferafts _____.
A: stow rainwater; these 4 spaces do not take up valuable space
B: act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as
the raft is inflated and upright
C: hold the freshwater required by regulation to be provided
in the raft when packed
D: None of the above
1257: Providing you are not sailing in the Red Sea or another
special area as listed in ANNEX V of MARPOL, how many miles
from land must you be to throw garbage including bottles,
rags, and glass that has not been ground up into the sea?
A: 3 nm
B: 6 nm
C: 12 nm
D: 25 nm
1258: On a bulk chemical carrier, water should NOT be used as an
extinguishing agent to fight a fire if the water may come
into contact with the chemical called _____________.
A: acrylic acid
B: benzene
C: oleum
D: vinyl toluene
1259: Who must make or supervise the changeover from automatic
to manual steering and vice versa?
A: a licensed state or federal pilot
B: the senior deckhand
C: the Master or Mate
D: a qualified Engineer
1260: The type of davit on which you must turn a crank in order to
swing the lifeboat out over the ship's side is a __________.
A: sheath-screw davit
B: gravity davit
C: radial davit
D: bruckner davit
1261: On small passenger vessels, when must watchmen patrol
throughout the vessel to guard against and give alarm in
case of fire or other danger?
A: At all times outside normal work hours
B: At all times when the vessel is underway
C: During the nighttime when the vessel carries overnight
passengers
D: When the rest of the crew is asleep
1262: Which portable fire extinguisher is normally recharged in a
shore facility?
A: Dry chemical (cartridge-operated)
B: Water (cartridge-operated)
C: Water (pump tank)
D: Carbon dioxide
1263: When chipping rust on a vessel, the MOST important piece of
safety gear is ________________________.
A: a hard hat
B: gloves
C: goggles
D: a long sleeve shirt
1264: The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft should be
renewed by _____________________.
A: removing the top half of the shell, cutting the line at its
source, and renewing completely
B: cutting the line where it enters the case and replacing that
portion
C: leaving the original line and tying another one to it so the
two lines will take the strain
D: an approved servicing facility ashore
1265: The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct
sufficient drills and give sufficient instruction
as necessary __________.
A: At each crew change
B: Every week
C: Every month
D: To ensure that all crew members are familiar with their
duties during emergencies
1266: A life line must be connected to the life raft __________.
A: at the bow
B: at the stern
C: in the middle
D: all around
1267: According to the Code of Federal Regulations, how is a
lifeboat weight test required to be conducted on a river
passenger vessel?
A: The lifeboat is lowered to near the water, loaded with the
allowed capacity, lowered into the water until afloat, then
released from the falls.
B: The lifeboat is loaded with the allowed capacity, lowered
into the water until afloat, then released from the falls.
C: The lifeboat is lowered into the water until afloat, loaded
with the allowed capacity, then released from the falls.
D: The lifeboat is lowered to near the water, loaded with the
allowed capacity, then released from the falls.
1268: Where must the draft or loading marks be placed on a
small passenger vessel?
A: On each side of the stem
B: Near the stern post or rudder post
C: At each end of the vessel
D: All of the above
1269: Life floats and buoyant apparatus used aboard small
passenger vessels shall be marked in clearly legible
letters and numbers _____________.
A: with the parent vessels name in 3" high letters and the
number of persons allowed with 1 1/2" high numbers
B: by a Coast Guard inspector after inspecting the equipment
C: by the American Bureau of Shipping (ABS), another
recognized, authorized classification society or the vessels
underwriters
D: by all of the above
1270: The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels
today is the ___________.
A: radial
B: sheath-screw
C: gravity
D: quadrantal
1271: The primary danger in helicopter fires is _____________.
A: burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas
B: loss of stability
C: rotating and flying debris
D: heat damage to helicopter structure
1272: When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield
firefighters from the fire by using _______________.
A: low-velocity fog
B: high-velocity fog
C: a straight stream of water
D: foam spray
1273: In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the
lifeboat from inside the lifeboat cabin?
A: Frapping line
B: Tricing line
C: Rottmer release
D: Winch remote control wire
1274: On inflatable life rafts, the operating cord should be
renewed by _______.
A: cutting the old line off and renewing same
B: an approved servicing facility ashore
C: opening the case and replacing the entire line
D: one of the ship's officers
1275: A documented vessel's name is marked on a clearly visible
exterior area of both sides of the bow and on the stern in
block letters not less than _______________.
A: 6 inches in height
B: 5 inches in height
C: 4 inches in height
D: 3 inches in height
1276: The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable
life raft operate _____.
A: by turning the globe clockwise
B: by a switch at each light
C: by a light sensor
D: automatically when the raft is inflated
1277: When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine
fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?
A: Secure all engine room doors, hatches, and vents.
B: Close the fuel line valve.
C: Check the spread of the fire with foam.
D: Cast the barge off the wharf.
1278: An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes
combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and
smoke screen is ______.
A: carbon dioxide
B: Halon 1301
C: dry chemical
D: water fog
1279: On a documented small passenger vessel, what information
must be permanently affixed in block-type letters and/or
numerals to the main beam or other clearly visible interior
structural part of the hull?
A: The vessel's name and gross tonnage
B: The vessel's official number
C: Draft markings
D: The vessel's name and home port
1280: On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same
height?
A: Radial
B: Sheath-screw
C: Quadrantal
D: Gravity
1281: You are in the process of righting an inflatable life raft
that has inflated in an upside down position. Which
statement is TRUE?
A: As the raft flips to the upright position, you will be
thrown clear.
B: After the raft is in the upright position on top of you,
dive down to prevent your life preservers from fouling as
you come out.
C: Swim out from under the raft in a face up position to keep
your life preservers clear of the raft.
D: You should remove your life preservers before attempting to
right an inflatable raft.
1282: When approaching a fire from leeward you should shield fire
fighters from the fire by using ____________.
A: a straight stream of water
B: foam spray
C: high-velocity fog
D: low-velocity fog
1283: The liquid-filled PV breaker has acted to relieve a vacuum
in a tank. What action must be taken in regards to the
breaker before continuing operations?
A: Check to make certain that it has reset itself.
B: Refill the breaker with liquid.
C: Manually reset the vacuum side of the breaker.
D: Install a new rupture disc.
1284: The operating cord on an inflatable life raft also serves as
a _______.
A: lifeline
B: painter
C: drogue
D: marker
1285: You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat
in a heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the
water. To prevent broaching, you should _________________.
A: put the sea on your stern and run as fast as the boat will
go
B: take no action to prevent broaching as this is a recommended
maneuver in a heavy sea
C: head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40
degree angle on either bow and run as slow as possible
without losing steerage
D: place everyone as far forward in the boat as possible to
keep the bow heavy
1286: The inside light in an inflatable life raft is turned on
_______.
A: automatically as the life raft inflates
B: with a switch near the boarding handle
C: at night because the light has a photosensitive switch
D: by screwing the bulb in after the raft is inflated
1287: When possible, what should be the FIRST step in combating a
fire on deck resulting from a cargo overflow or a leaking
cargo line?
A: Blanket the cargo spill with foam.
B: Prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam.
C: Apply CO2 on burning fuel at its source.
D: Shut off the transfer of cargo.
1288: Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical
fires?
A: Foam
B: CO2
C: Dry chemical
D: Water fog
1289: An undocumented vessel with 10 people aboard and operating
25 miles off the seacoast must carry a survival craft of the
_________________.
A: inflatable buoyant apparatus type
B: buoyant apparatus type
C: life float type
D: Any of the above types are acceptable.
1290: Which davit type may be operated by one man?
A: Quadrantal
B: Gravity
C: Sheath-screw
D: Radial
1291: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
09'-00", AFT 15'-11.5". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of THe Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 1.82 feet
B: 1.96 feet
C: 2.05 feet
D: 2.17 feet
1292: What is the MOST important consideration when determining
how to fight an electrical fire?
A: Whether the fire is in machinery or passenger spaces
B: Danger of shock to personnel
C: The amount of toxic fumes created by the extinguisher
D: Maintaining electrical power
1293: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
09'-00", AFT 15'-11". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 2.62 feet
B: 2.82 feet
C: 2.97 feet
D: 3.15 feet
1294: According to the "T-Boat" regulations, the permanent marks
placed on each side of a vessel forward, aft, and
amidships to indicate the maximum allowable draft and
trim are called _____________.
A: load marks
B: the air draft
C: depth marks
D: Plimsoll marks
1295: If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat
through a heavy surf, the recommended method is to ________.
A: keep the bow directly in toward the beach, and tow the sea
anchor off the stern
B: ride in on the back of a large breaker
C: keep the bow into the seas with the sea anchor out over the
bow, and row to meet the breaking waves
D: head directly into the beach by staying between the crests
of the waves
1296: Hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable
liferaft are provided _____________________.
A: to right the raft if it capsizes
B: to carry the raft around on deck
C: for crewmen to hang on to
D: to hang the raft for drying
1297: A small passenger vessel of not more than 65 feet in length
must have a collision bulkhead if it _____________.
A: operates on exposed waters
B: carries more than 49 passengers
C: is more than 40 feet in length and operates on partially
exposed waters
D: All of the above
1298: If a powdered aluminum fire is being fought, the correct
extinguishing agent would be _____________________.
A: dry powder
B: water fog
C: CO2
D: steam
1299: In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes,
what would you AVOID doing?
A: Giving stimulants
B: Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating
atmosphere
C: Applying artificial respiration and massage
D: Keeping the patient warm and comfortable
1300: Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with
a minimum safety factor of _________________________.
A: 4, based on the breaking strength
B: 5, based on the maximum allowable stress
C: 6, based on the maximum working load
D: 8, based on the normal working load
1301: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is 24
nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of garbage
is prohibited from being discharged?
A: Glass
B: Crockery
C: Metal
D: Dunnage
1302: A class B fire is most successfully fought by _____________.
A: preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material
B: cooling the burning material below its ignition temperature
C: using the extinguishing agent to make the burning material
fire-resistant
D: using the extinguishing agent to absorb the heat
1303: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, where practicable
carburetor drip collectors should drain to ________________.
A: the engine air intakes
B: the fuel tanks
C: a separate pipe leading to the bilges
D: a suitable absorbant material
1304: The painter of an inflatable life raft should be ________.
A: free running on the deck
B: faked out next to the case
C: secured to a permanent object on deck
D: stowed near the raft
1305: When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-hand
propeller) with the rudder amidships, the stern will back
_________.
A: straight
B: to port
C: to starboard
D: None of the above
1306: Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable life raft
are for _________.
A: catching rain water
B: stability
C: easy drainage
D: maneuverability
1307: Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam _________.
A: penetrates to the bottom of the fire
B: is kept saturated with low-velocity water fog
C: mixes with the burning fuel oil
D: completely covers the top of the burning liquid
1308: What would be the most effective agent to use to extinguish
a fire in drums of inflammable liquids stowed on the weather
deck of a vessel?
A: Carbon dioxide
B: Foam
C: Steam
D: Water fog
1309: On small passenger vessels which type of internal
combustion engine carburetor does not require a drip
collector?
A: Updraft
B: Two barrel
C: Four barrel
D: Downdraft
1310: Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to __________.
A: reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered
from the embarkation level
B: secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed
position
C: hold the lifeboat to the ship's side until the tricing lines
are passed
D: be used as a safety line in an emergency
1311: Which statement about pneumatic chipping tools is TRUE?
A: The operator must wear safety goggles or glasses.
B: The equipment must be grounded to prevent shock hazard.
C: The chipping mechanism is made of a non-sparking material
that is safe to use near explosive atmospheres.
D: The needles of the needle-type chipping gun must be replaced
when they have been blunted more than 1/2 of their diameter.
1312: The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to _____.
A: remove oxygen from the area
B: cool fuel below ignition temperature
C: smother with CO2
D: smother fire with foam
1313: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed.
There is already 3224 tons of cargo on board with a KG of
29.8 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo
after loading is completed.
A: KG 27.2 feet
B: KG 27.8 feet
C: KG 28.4 feet
D: KG 29.0 feet
1314: Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its
cradle by ___________.
A: cutting the restraining strap
B: unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle
C: lifting one end of the raft
D: pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic
release
1315: In heavy seas you decide to heave to. The lifeboat should
be ______.
A: brought to a position with the stern into the seas
B: allowed to take its own head
C: brought to lay in the trough
D: brought bow into the seas
1316: The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will
provide protection against ____________________.
A: warm water temperatures
B: cold water temperatures
C: tears in the outside skin of the bottom of the raft
D: All of the above
1317: The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide from a
portable extinguisher to a fire is by _____________________.
A: forming a cloud cover over the flames
B: directing the gas at the base of the flames in a slow
sweeping motion
C: discharging the carbon dioxide into the heart of the flames
D: bouncing the discharge off an adjacent bulkhead just above
the burning surface
1318: The most effective fire extinguishing agent to use on
burning linen is _____________.
A: water
B: carbon dioxide
C: dry chemical
D: foam
1319: Where should muster lists be posted?
A: In crew's accommodation spaces
B: On the navigating bridge
C: In the engine room
D: All of the above
1320: Fire extinguishers on inspected vessels are numbered by size
I through V, with I being _________________.
A: used for electrical fires only
B: the smallest
C: the most accessible
D: the most effective
1321: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
A: Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led
inboard of the falls
B: Spliced into the ring on the stem post
C: Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the
falls
D: Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward
thwart
1322: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
A: Spliced into the ring on the stem post
B: Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led
inboard of the falls
C: Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the
falls
D: Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward
thwart
1323: How should latitude 51²48.7' S be written when preparing an
AMVER report?
A: 5149S
B: 51.8S
C: 0578S
D: 52S
1324: A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft __________.
A: must be wet before it will release
B: should be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergency
C: will inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manually
D: must be submerged to a certain depth to release
automatically
1325: If absolutely necessary, the best way to land on a beach in
a motor lifeboat is to ___________.
A: run as fast as the boat will go and keep the sea on the
stern
B: secure the engine, put sea anchor over the bow, put out the
oars, use sweep oar and back onto beach
C: go in "under oars" and put out the sea painter
D: put the sea broadside and let the boat drift ashore
1326: All inflatable life rafts have _________________.
A: safety straps from the overhead
B: built in seats
C: releasing hooks at each end
D: water stabilizing pockets
1327: If you are forced to abandon ship in a life raft, your
course of action should be to ___________.
A: remain in the immediate vicinity
B: head for the nearest land
C: head for the closest sea-lanes
D: let the persons in the boat vote on what to do
1328: Any extinguishing agent used on a Class "C" fire must have
which important property?
A: Cooling ability
B: Leaves no residue
C: Penetrating power
D: Nonconductivity
1329: The sprinkler system of a covered lifeboat is used to _____.
A: cool the craft in a fire
B: cool the engine
C: spray oil on the sea to calm it
D: spray personnel during a fire
1330: How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
A: Spliced into the ring on the stem post
B: Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward
thwart
C: Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led
inboard of the falls
D: Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the
falls
1331: A Certificate of Financial Responsibility attests that
the vessel _______.
A: has financial backing to meet any liability resulting from
the discharge of oil
B: has the minimum required amount of P & I and hull insurance
C: will assume the responsibility for any damage or loss to
the shipper
D: has financial reserves to meet reasonable expected crew
costs of an intended voyage
1332: An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to
_______.
A: stop ventilation
B: stop the vessel
C: de-energize the circuit
D: apply water to extinguish the fire
1333: If you reef a marconi mainsail, the sail area ____________.
A: moves forward and up
B: moves aft and down
C: becomes larger
D: becomes smaller
1334: An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its
cradle by ______.
A: cutting the straps that enclose the container
B: removing the rubber sealing strip from the container
C: loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap
D: pushing the button on the hydrostatic release
1335: What prevents an inflated life raft from being pulled under
by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?
A: The hydrostatic release
B: Nothing
C: A Rottmer release
D: The weak link in the painter line
1336: A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people
stationary in rough weather is _____________________.
A: lashings on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feet
B: straps from the overhead
C: safety straps on the inside of the raft
D: ridges in the floor of the raft
1337: It is desirable to have screens on the vents of potable
water tanks to _______________.
A: filter the incoming air
B: prevent explosions
C: prevent backups
D: stop insects from entering
1338: Regular foam can be used on all but which flammable liquid?
A: Motor gasoline
B: Jet fuel
C: Crude petroleum
D: Alcohol
1339: The static stability curve for a given vessel peaks at 34ø.
For this ship, the danger angle for a permanent list would
be about _______.
A: 8.5ø
B: 17ø
C: 34ø
D: 51ø
1340: When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion
foam will _____.
A: be dryer
B: be lighter
C: be less heat resistant
D: not cling to vertical surfaces
1341: Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are
given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt
water to ________.
A: induce vomiting
B: absorb the poison from the blood
C: neutralize the poison in the blood
D: increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison
1342: If there's a fire aboard your vessel, you should FIRST ____.
A: notify the Coast Guard
B: sound the alarm
C: have passengers put on life preservers
D: cut off air supply to the fire
1343: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 26'-09", AFT
28'-03". The KG is 25.4 feet. Use the salmon pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list
if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt
water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).
A: 3.0²
B: 4.5²
C: 5.0²
D: 6.5²
1344: What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an
inflatable life raft?
A: To release the raft from the cradle automatically as the
ship sinks
B: To inflate the raft automatically
C: To test the rafts hydrostatically
D: None of the above
1345: An inflatable life raft can be launched by _____________.
A: the float-free method ONLY
B: breaking the weak link on the painter
C: throwing the entire container overboard and then pulling on
the operating cord to inflate the raft
D: removing the securing straps
1346: The canopy of an inflatable liferaft should ______________.
A: go into place as the raft is inflated
B: be put up after everyone is aboard
C: be put up only in severe weather
D: be used as a sail if the wind is blowing
1347: A quick and rapid motion of a vessel in a seaway is an
indication of a(n) ___________.
A: large GM
B: high center of gravity
C: excessive free surface
D: small GZ
1348: Dry chemical fire extinguishers are effective on which
type(s) of fire?
A: Burning oil
B: Electrical
C: Paint
D: All of the above
1349: What type of liquid is used in the liquid P/V breaker?
A: Hydraulic oil
B: Water-antifreeze mixture
C: Distilled water
D: Oil from the cargo
1350: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 2.45 feet
B: 1.95 feet
C: 1.05 feet
D: 0.90 foot
1351: While operating off the coast of Greece, a seaman is
injured. What indicator should be in the preamble of a
radiotelegram asking for medical advice from a Greek
station?
A: RADIO MEDICAL
B: DH MEDICO
C: MEDICO ELLAS
D: MAYDAY
1352: If you have a fire in the engine room, your FIRST act should
be to ___________________.
A: discharge the fixed CO2 system into the engine room
B: secure the fuel supply and ventilation to the engine room
C: maneuver your vessel into the wind
D: have all of your crew get into the life raft
1353: In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the motor lifeboat
________.
A: into the seas
B: broadside to the seas
C: in the same direction as the seas
D: in a series of figure-eights
1354: If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable
liferaft is not periodically serviced and becomes
inoperative, it will NOT ___________.
A: set the water lights on immersion
B: release the dye-marker from the liferaft
C: free the liferaft from the vessel
D: break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder
1355: As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic
trip releases the life raft container from its cradle by
_____________________.
A: breaking the weak link
B: releasing the tie-down strap
C: pulling the operating cord
D: releasing the CO2 canister
1356: What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft
to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or
overturned?
A: Water pockets
B: A keel
C: Strikes
D: Sea anchor
1357: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.9
feet and drafts of: FWD 17'-10", AFT 19'-04". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM
to 3.9 feet.
A: Tanks: DB4, DT6
B: Tanks: DB3, DB5, DT8
C: Tanks: DB6, DT7
D: Tanks: DB2, DT1, DT6
1358: Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium
fire?
A: Water
B: Sand
C: CO2
D: Dry chemical
1359: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle
lifeboat on the port side is designated as boat number ___.
1360: When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be pulled
into the embarkation deck by the ___________.
A: falls
B: tricing pendants
C: frapping lines
D: boat hooks
1361: What is the minimum diameter allowed for bilge piping on
small passenger vessels which are more than 65 feet in
length?
A: 1"
B: 1-1/2"
C: 2"
D: 2-1/2"
1362: On small passenger vessels, backfire flame arrestors are
installed on ___________.
A: all electric motors
B: turbocharged diesel engines
C: gasoline engines
D: both A and C
1363: Before entering the chain locker, you should ____________.
A: have someone standing by
B: make sure there is sufficient air within the locker
C: de-energize the windlass
D: All of the above
1364: Signaling devices required on inflatable life rafts include
a(n) ________.
A: Very pistol
B: orange smoke signal
C: air horn
D: lantern
1365: The most important thing to remember when launching an
inflatable life raft by hand is to ____________________.
A: open the CO2 inflation valve
B: open the raft container
C: ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel
D: inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side
1366: The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable life raft will
provide protection against _____________________.
A: asphyxiation from CO2
B: loss of air in the sides of the raft
C: rough seas
D: cold water temperatures
1367: Determine the free surface constant for a fuel oil tank 30
ft. long by 40 ft. wide by 15 ft. deep. The specific gravity
of the fuel oil is .85 and the ship is floating in saltwater
(S.G. 1.026).
A: .83
B: 42.7
C: 3787
D: 4571
1368: A fire in electrical equipment should be extinguished by
using ______.
A: salt water
B: foam
C: low-velocity fog
D: CO2
1369: A cargo of 50 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the
ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the
50 ton cargo will be 3,000 tons and the GM three feet. The
list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be _______.
A: 5.35²
B: 5.80²
C: 6.10²
D: 6.35²
1370: The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78
apply to a U.S. flag vessel on which waters?
A: Inland waters
B: Great Lakes
C: the high seas outside U.S. internal waters
D: All of the above
1371: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
A: All models will automatically turn an unconscious person
face-up in the water.
B: The immersion suit seals in body heat and provides
protection against hypothermia indefinetely.
C: The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer
while swimming through burning oil.
D: The suits provide for limited body movement such as walking,
climbing a ladder and picking up small objects like a
pencil.
1372: It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a
compartment where there is a fire to __________________.
A: allow the exhaust fans to remove smoke
B: extinguish the fire by carbon monoxide smothering
C: prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire
D: protect fire fighting personnel from smoke
1373: You are reading draft marks on a vessel. The water level is
halfway between the bottom of the number 5 and the top of
the number 5. What is the draft of the vessel?
A: 4'-09"
B: 5'-09"
C: 5'-03"
D: 5'-06"
1374: Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an
inflatable liferaft should FIRST be stopped by using ______.
A: sealing clamps
B: repair tape
C: a tube patch
D: sail twine and vulcanizing kit
1375: To launch a life raft by hand you should _____________.
A: cut the casing bands, throw the life raft over the side, and
it will then inflate
B: detach the operating cord, throw the raft over the side, and
it will then inflate
C: cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side, and pull
the operating cord
D: throw the life raft over the side and pull the operating
cord
1376: Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean
service and could be effectively used to attract the
attention of aircraft at night?
A: The water light
B: Smoke marker
C: Red flares
D: Orange dye marker
1377: On a vessel of 34,000 tons displacement, a tank 80 ft. long,
60 ft. wide and 30 ft. deep is half filled with fresh water
(SG 1.000) while the vessel is floating in saltwater
(SG 1.026). What is the free surface constant for this
tank?
A: 2661
B: 2819
C: 40100
D: 42213
1378: The most effective cooling agent among those normally used
to fight fires is ___________.
A: water fog
B: chemical foam
C: mechanical foam
D: carbon dioxide
1379: Which statement about inert gas pressures in a cargo tank is
TRUE?
A: The pressures of the inert gas in the tank may create
excessive pressure at the pump while discharging.
B: Gas pressures should be maintained at the highest
permissible level throughout the discharging process.
C: High gas pressures may cause pyrophoric oxidation in the
tank.
D: High gas pressures may cause loss of suction when stripping.
1380: A cargo of 100 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the
ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the
100 tons of cargo will be 10,000 tons and the GM two feet.
The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be
_________.
A: 5.4ø
B: 5.7ø
C: 5.9ø
D: 6.1ø
1381: Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for
fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom,
provided that the ____________.
A: persons in the space wear gas masks
B: persons in the space wear damp cloths over their mouths and
nostrils
C: ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the
space
D: ventilation system is kept operating
1382: Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a
fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid
spread of the fire by _________________.
A: convection
B: conduction
C: radiation
D: spontaneous combustion
1383: Which statement about entry into a water ballast tank that
has been sealed for a long time is TRUE?
A: A "buddy system" should be used where someone enters the
tank with you.
B: Sea water acts on the ship's metal and generates chlorine
gas which may accumulate in poisonous quantities.
C: You should always wear a gas mask.
D: After ventilation and testing, and the tank is found
safe for entry, someone should stand by at the tank entrance
while you are inside.
1384: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, rigid plastic or other
non-metallic piping ____________.
A: may only be used for gasoline fuel piping
B: may only be used for diesel fuel piping
C: may not be used for diesel or gasoline fuel piping
D: may be used for gasoline or diesel fuel piping
1385: An inflatable life raft is hand-launched by ___________.
A: pulling a cord
B: cutting the wire restraining bands
C: removing the rubber packing strip
D: throwing the entire container overboard
1386: If the metacentric height is large, a vessel will ________.
A: be tender
B: have a slow and easy motion
C: be stiff
D: have a tendency to yaw
1387: In painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts
must be painted bright red?
A: the top 2-1/2 inches of each side
B: the releasing gear lever
C: the fuel tanks
D: the thwarts
1388: Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?
A: CO2
B: Foam
C: Water
D: Dry chemical
1389: Which statement about the inert gas system is TRUE?
A: Boiler soot blowers should never be used when the IG system
is operating.
B: The boiler will produce the best quality of flue gas for
the IG system when the boiler load is very light.
C: The boiler will produce the most quantity of flue gas for
the IG system when the boiler load is very light.
D: Flue gas with excessive oxygen content is de-oxygenated in
the scrubber.
1390: Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed
in gravity davits?
A: Release gripes, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release
frapping lines
B: Release tricing pennants, turn on emergency disconnect
switch, release frapping lines
C: Operate limit switches, release gripes, lift brake
D: Release gripes, lift brake, release tricing pennants
1391: Halon extinguishes fire primarily by _____.
A: cooling
B: smothering
C: shielding of radiant heat
D: chain breaking
1392: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a
shipboard fire by ___________________.
A: removing the heat
B: removing the oxygen
C: removing the fuel
D: interrupting the chain reaction
1393: You are reading the draft marks. The water level is about 4
inches below the bottom of the number 11. What is the draft?
A: 10'-08"
B: 10'-10"
C: 11'-04"
D: 11'-08"
1394: In each inflatable raft, what piece of equipment is provided
to make quick, emergency, temporary repairs to a large hole
in a raft?
A: No equipment is provided.
B: Glue and rubber patches
C: Several various-sized sealing clamps
D: Self-adhesive rubberized canvas patches
1395: After you have thrown the life raft and stowage container
into the water, you inflate the life raft by ______________.
A: pulling on the painter line
B: forcing open the container which operates the CO2
C: hitting the hydrostatic release
D: using the hand pump provided
1396: If you find an inflatable life raft container with steel
bands around the case, you should _________________.
A: tell the Master
B: leave the bands in place
C: tell the Mate
D: remove the bands yourself
1397: To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is __________.
A: bicarbonate of soda
B: paregoric
C: aspirin
D: aromatic spirits of ammonia
1398: The size of fire hydrant hose connections on a cargo vessel
must be either 1-1/2 inches or _________________.
A: 1 inch
B: 2-1/2 inches
C: 3 inches
D: 3-1/2 inches
1399: How should longitude 116²24.3' W be written when preparing
an AMVER report?
A: 116²24.3W
B: 11624W
C: 116.4W
D: 116W
1400: In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is
best to launch a lifeboat _________________________.
A: on the lee side
B: on the windward side
C: with the wind dead ahead
D: with the wind from astern
1401: Which statement about transmitting distress messages by
radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
A: Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz.
B: It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by
two dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration.
C: If no answer is received on the designated distress
frequencies, repeat the distress call on any frequency
available.
D: Channel 16 (156.8 mHz) may be used for distress messages.
1402: When using carbon dioxide to fight a fire on a bulkhead, the
CO2 should be applied _____________________.
A: first to the bottom of the flaming area, sweeping from side
to side, and following the flames upward
B: in a circular motion from the middle of the bulkhead
outward
C: to the top of the flaming area, sweeping from side to side,
and working toward the bottom
D: in an up-and-down motion from one side of the bulkhead to
the other
1403: What action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is
closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation
valve?
A: The tank must be gas freed.
B: The tank must be ballasted.
C: The tank must be vented to the atmosphere.
D: The bypass valve must also be closed.
1404: Signaling devices which are required on inflatable life
rafts include _____________.
A: a rocket shoulder rifle
B: an oil lantern
C: red flares
D: an air horn
1405: When launching an inflatable life raft, you should make sure
that the operating cord is _____________________.
A: fastened to some substantial part of the vessel
B: not fastened to anything
C: secured to the hydrostatic release
D: fastened to the raft container
1406: The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is
the____________________.
A: decrease in capabilities of radar
B: decrease in displacement
C: adverse effect on trim
D: loss of stability
1407: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You
will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is
indicated by what letter?
1408: What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide
fire-extinguishing agents?
A: Effective even if ventilation is not shut down
B: Will not deteriorate in storage
C: Non-corrosive
D: Effective on electrical equipment
1409: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
08'-04", AFT 13'-08". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed as LOAD 109 will be on board.
Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the minimum GM required to meet a one compartment
standard.
A: 1.91 feet
B: 2.09 feet
C: 2.21 feet
D: 2.48 feet
1411: Which statement about entry into a space that has been
sealed for a long time is TRUE?
A: A tank that has been used to carry hazardous liquids should
be tested for oxygen content, toxicity, and explosive gases.
B: You can safely enter the space without a breathing
apparatus if the oxygen content exceeds 14%.
C: The natural ventilation through the installed vents is
sufficient to provide the proper oxygen content.
D: The heat of the sun on upper ballast tanks, such as in a
bulk carrier, may generate carbon monoxide.
1412: By regulation, cargo tanks must be inert before and during
what operation?
A: Stripping
B: Loading
C: Cleaning
D: Crude oil washing
1413: Your vessel is damaged, and there is no list or trim.
The rolling period is short. The freeboard before the
damage was 12'02" (3.7 meters). It is now reduced to
3'00"(1 meter). Which action would you take FIRST?
A: Press up a slack centerline double bottom tank
B: Pump out an amidships centerline ballast tank
C: Transfer ballast from the peak tanks to an
amidships centerline tank
D: Pump out the marine potable tank located on the
starboard side amidships
1415: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The
water level forward is at the top of the 8, and the mean
water level aft is at the top of the 8. What is the mean
draft?
A: 8'06"
B: 8'03"
C: 8'00"
D: 7'06"
1416: You will extinguish a fire when you remove _____________.
A: nitrogen
B: oxygen
C: sodium
D: carbon dioxide
1417: A vessel is "listed" when it is __________________.
A: down by the head
B: down by the stern
C: inclined due to off-center weight
D: inclined due to wind
1418: Which is the MOST important consideration for a tank vessel?
A: GM
B: The longitudinal center of gravity
C: The stress on the hull
D: The vertical center of gravity
1419: Your vessel is listing 4ø to port and has a short
rolling period. There is loose firefighting water in the
hull. The ship is trimmed down by the head with one foot of
freeboard at the bow. Which action should you take FIRST?
A: Press up the slack NO.1 starboard double bottom tank.
B: Pump out the forepeak tank.
C: Eliminate the water in the tween decks aft.
D: Jettison stores out of the paint locker in the fo'c'sle.
1420: Which statement about the pressure in a tank being inerted
by an inert gas system is TRUE?
A: The maximum pressure permitted is 8 psi.
B: A positive pressure should be maintained at all times.
C: The pressure must remain within the limits of +8 psi to -1
psi.
D: None of the above
1422: Mechanical gearing of deck machinery such as the windlass or
boat hoists should ___________________________.
A: be open to view so, if a foreign object gets in the gearing,
the operator can immediately stop the machinery
B: have a guard over the gearing
C: be painted a contrasting color from the base color in order
to call attention to the gearing
D: not be operated if there is any crew within 10 feet of the
machinery
1423: A weight of 250 tons is loaded on your vessel 95 feet
forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1000
ft-tons. What is the total change of trim?
A: 11.90 inches
B: 18.75 inches
C: 23.75 inches
D: 38.01 inches
1424: Halon gas will decompose and may form very hazardous toxic
fumes when discharged _________________.
A: directly on flames
B: at room temperature
C: in an extremely cold climate
D: None of the above
1425: Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide
(CO2) in firefighting?
A: Compatible with all foam agents
B: Cleaner
C: More protective against re-flash
D: All of the above
1426: A vessel aground may have negative GM since the __________.
A: decrease in KM is equal to the loss of draft
B: virtual rise of G is directly proportional to the
remaining draft
C: displacement lost acts at the point where the ship is
aground
D: lost buoyancy method is used to calculate KM, and
KB is reduced
1427: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in
illustration D007SA. You will be heading due north when you
head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter?
1428: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360
psi. It must be recharged when the pressure drops below how
many psi?
A: 360
B: 352
C: 336
D: 324
1429: When collecting condensation for drinking water, _________.
A: a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept
salt free
B: only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be
collected
C: it should be strained through a finely woven cloth
D: chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable
1430: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed.
There is already 6422 tons of cargo on board with a KG of
26.6 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo
after loading is completed.
A: KG 24.9 feet
B: KG 25.5 feet
C: KG 26.1 feet
D: KG 28.9 feet
1431: Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon 1301?
A: It is colorless.
B: It is sweet smelling.
C: It may cause dizziness when inhaled.
D: It does not conduct electricity.
1432: You are reading the draft marks. The top 2 inches of the 9
forward is visible above the water level, and the water
level is four inches below the 10 aft. What is the mean
draft?
A: 9'-10"
B: 9'-06"
C: 9'-04"
D: 9'-02"
1433: You should NOT use a power tool if _________________.
A: it has a three-prong plug
B: the insulation of the power wires is worn
C: hand tools can be used instead
D: the power source is alternating current
1434: Halon fire extinguishers are NOT effective when used on
which types of fires?
A: Fires in electrical equipment
B: Flammable oils and greases
C: Class "A" fires in ordinary combustibles
D: Materials containing their own oxygen
1435: After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas
system the gas is passed through what device for final
cleaning?
A: Scrubber
B: Demister
C: Deck water seal
D: Final filter
1436: Your vessel's draft is 16'-00" fwd. and 18'-00" aft. The
MT1 is 500 ft-tons. How many tons of water must be shifted
from the after peak to the forepeak, a distance of 250 feet,
to bring her to an even draft forward and aft?
A: 52 tons
B: 50 tons
C: 48 tons
D: 24 tons
1437: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars. You will be
heading due north when you head for Polaris which is
indicated by which letter?
1438: The color of the signal flare sent up by a submarine to
indicate an emergency condition within the submarine is
___________.
A: white
B: green
C: yellow
D: red
1439: Safety goggles or glasses are NOT normally worn when ______.
A: using a rotary grinder with an installed shield
B: letting go the anchor
C: handling wire rope or natural fiber line
D: painting with a spray gun
1440: A ship is inclined by moving a weight of 30 tons a
distance of 30 ft. from the centerline. A 28-foot pendulum
shows a deflection of 12 inches. Displacement including
weight moved is 4,000 tons. KM is 27.64 feet. What is the
KG?
A: 21.34 feet
B: 22.06 feet
C: 22.76 feet
D: 23.21 feet
1441: On small passenger vessels, how many supply and exhaust
ducts are required in each enclosed space containing
gasoline powered machinery or gasoline fuel tanks?
A: 1 of each
B: 2 of each
C: 3 of each
D: 4 of each
1442: If the cause of severe list or trim is off-center ballast,
counterflooding into empty tanks will _______________.
A: increase the righting moment
B: increase the righting arm
C: increase list or trim
D: decrease list or trim
1443: When jumping into water upon which there is an oil-fire, you
should ________________________.
A: break the water surface with your hands when diving
head-first
B: use your hands to hold your knees to your chest
C: cover your eyes with one hand while pinching your nose shut
and covering your mouth with the other
D: enter the water at the bow or stern on the windward side of
the vessel
1444: A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective
against fires of class _____________.
1445: When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to
lift a weight, you would instruct him to _________________.
A: arch the back to add strength to the muscles
B: bend his knees and lift with his legs
C: bend his back and stoop
D: bend his back and stoop with arms straight
1446: A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is
152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will be
___________.
A: 29'-09"
B: 29'-11"
C: 30'-04"
D: 30'-07"
1447: Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for
fighting a class "C" fire?
A: The dry chemical is a conductor.
B: The dry chemical leaves a residue.
C: CO2 will not dissipate in air.
D: It takes smaller amounts of CO2 to cover the same area.
1448: After making the required notification that a large oil
spill into the water has occurred, the FIRST action should
be to _____________.
A: apply straw or sawdust on the oil
B: contain the spread of the oil
C: throw grains of sand into the oil
D: have the vessel move out of the spill area
1449: A vessel to which Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 applies is located
10 nautical miles from the nearest land. Which type of
garbage is prohibited from being discharged?
A: Food waste
B: Rags ground to less than 1"
C: Paper ground to less than 1"
D: None of the above
1450: When a vessel is stationary and in a hogging condition, the
main deck is under _____.
A: compression stress
B: racking stress
C: shear stress
D: tension stress
1451: Before counterflooding to correct a list, you must be sure
the list is due to _____________.
A: negative GM
B: flooding
C: off-center weight
D: reserve buoyancy
1452: First aid means __________________________.
A: medical treatment of accident
B: setting of broken bones
C: emergency treatment at the scene of the injury
D: dosage of medications
1453: The hoods over galley ranges present what major hazard?
A: Grease collects in the duct and filter and if it catches
fire is difficult to extinguish.
B: In order to effectively draw off cooking heat they present a
head-injury hazard to a person of average or more height.
C: They inhibit the effective operation of fire fighting
systems in combatting deep fat fryer or range fires.
D: They concentrate the heat of cooking and may raise
surrounding flammable material to the ignition point.
1454: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in
illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you
head for Polaris which is indicated by what letter?
1455: Which statement about AMVER reports is TRUE?
A: The sailing plan may be sent in any reasonable time before
departure, but not later than 4 hours after departure.
B: The port latitude and longitude figures are the geographic
position of the pilot station.
C: In the body of the sailing plan report, the letter G is used
to indicate a great circle course.
D: There are four different message reports in the AMVER
system.
1456: You are reading the draft marks. The water level is at the
bottom of number 11. What is the draft?
A: 11'-06"
B: 11'-00"
C: 10'-09"
D: 10'-06"
1457: When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire do NOT
use _____.
A: carbon dioxide
B: dry chemical
C: foam (stored-pressure type)
D: water (cartridge-operated)
1458: Your vessel displaces 14,500 tons, with a longitudinal CG
247.5 ft. aft of the FP. If you pump 80 tons of ballast
from forward to aft through a distance of 480 feet, your new
CG will be ___________________.
A: 244.85 feet aft of FP
B: 246.22 feet aft of FP
C: 248.87 feet aft of FP
D: 250.15 feet aft of FP
1461: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You
will be heading due north when you head for Polaris which is
indicated by what letter?
1462: In cleaning up an oil spill, chemical agents would ________.
A: absorb the oil for easy removal
B: remove the oil from the water
C: facilitate the removal of the polluant from the water
D: not affect the oil
1463: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should ____.
A: cool the bulkhead around the fire
B: close all openings to the area
C: shut off all electrical power
D: remove combustibles from direct exposure
1464: What is NOT a function of the air supply of a covered
lifeboat?
A: Provides air for engine combustion
B: Pressurizes water spray system
C: Provides air for passenger respiration
D: Prevents smoke and other noxious fumes from entering craft
1466: You used a carbon dioxide (CO2) fire extinguisher but
did not empty the extinguisher. You must have it recharged
if the weight loss exceeds ____________________.
A: one percent of the weight of the charge
B: five percent of the weight of the charge
C: seven percent of the weight of the charge
D: ten percent of the weight of the charge
1467: Your vessel has a forward draft of 26'-11" and an after
draft of 29'-07". How many tons of cargo can be loaded
before the vessel reaches a mean draft of 28'-06 inches if
the TPI is 69?
A: 204 tons
B: 207 tons
C: 210 tons
D: 213 tons
1468: You are on the SS American Mariner and involved in a
collision. Your draft has increased uniformly and there is
about 4 feet of freeboard remaining. The vessel is on an
even keel and has a long rolling period. The roll is
sluggish, and the vessel hangs at the ends of a roll. Which
of the following actions would you take first to correct the
situation?
A: Pump out a slack double bottom tank to reduce free surface.
B: Flood any empty double bottom tanks to decrease KG.
C: Jettison topside weights to increase freeboard.
D: Pump out flooding water in the cargo holds to reduce free
surface.
1469: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
A: All models will automatically turn an unconscious person
face-up in the water.
B: The immersion suit reduces the rate of body cooling and
increases the survival time in cold water to hours or days.
C: The suit is flameproof and provides protection to a wearer
swimming in burning oil.
D: The suit provides a full range of body movement and is
suitable for routine wear on deck.
1470: If your vessel has a list to port due to negative GM and
off-center weight, the first corrective measure you
should take is to _______.
A: move port-side main-deck cargo to the starboard side
B: fill the starboard double-bottom
C: pump water from the port double-bottom to the starboard
double-bottom
D: pump water from the port double-bottom over the side
1471: What do regulations allow to be marked with EITHER the name
of the fishing vessel OR the name of the person to whom it
is assigned?
A: Immersion suit
B: Buoyant apparatus
C: Ring buoy
D: Life float
1472: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The
water level forward is 4 inches below the 11, and the water
level aft is 2 inches below the top of the 11. What is the
mean draft?
A: 11'-08"
B: 11'-06"
C: 11'-04"
D: 11'-00"
1473: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in
illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you
head for Polaris which is indicated by which letter?
1474: In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a ____.
A: Chemical agent
B: blocker
C: Sorbent
D: None of the above
1475: You need to pull the sea anchor back aboard your liferaft.
What part of the anchor do you pull on?
A: Drag line
B: Bridle
C: Trip line
D: Iron ring
1477: A fire starts on your vessel while refueling. You should
FIRST _____.
A: stop the ventilation
B: sound the general alarm
C: determine the source of the fire
D: attempt to extinguish the fire
1478: There is a fire in the crew's quarters of your vessel.
You should _______________.
A: ventilate the quarters as much as possible
B: prepare to abandon ship
C: close all ventilation to the quarters if possible
D: attempt to put the fire out yourself before sounding
the alarm
1479: If your vessel is aground at the bow, it would be preferable
that any weight removals be made from the _________.
A: bow
B: mid-section
C: stern
D: All of the above
1480: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 2.23 feet
B: 1.93 feet
C: 1.82 feet
D: 1.38 feet
1481: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The
water level is at the top of number 8. What is the draft?
A: 7'-09"
B: 8'-00"
C: 8'-03"
D: 8'-06"
1482: Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress
fire?
A: CO2
B: Foam
C: Dry Chemical
D: Water
1483: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1
feet and drafts of: FWD 19'-06", AFT 21'-04". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine what tank(s) you should ballast to increase the GM
to 3.7 feet.
A: Tanks: DT1
B: Tanks: DB3, DT8
C: Tanks: DB2, DB7
D: Tanks: DB5
1484: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 3.1
feet and drafts of: FWD 16'-00", AFT 18'-04". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine what tank(s) you should ballast to increase the GM
to 3.6 feet.
A: Tanks: DB1, DT1A
B: Tanks: DT6, DT7
C: Tank: DT8
D: Tank: DB3
1485: Which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
A: Some models will automatically turn an unconscious
person face-up in the water.
B: The immersion suit seals in body heat and
provides protection against hypothermia for weeks.
C: The suit will still be serviceable after a brief
(2-6minutes) exposure to flame and burning.
D: The wearer of the suit is not restricted in body
movement and the suit may be donned well in advance of
abandoning ship.
1486: A cargo of 30 tons is to be loaded on deck 30 feet from the
ship's centerline. The ship's displacement including the 30
tons cargo will be 9,000 tons and the GM will be 5 feet.
The list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be
_______.
A: 1.14²
B: 2.05²
C: 2.31²
D: 3.40²
1487: A vessel's heavy displacement is 24,500 tons with light
displacement of 13,300 tons. Fully loaded it carries 300
tons of fuel and stores. What is the vessel's deadweight?
A: 10,900 tons
B: 11,200 tons
C: 13,000 tons
D: 24,200 tons
1488: When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion
foam will ____________.
A: be dryer
B: be lighter
C: be more heat resistant
D: cling to vertical surfaces
1489: The boat command that means complete the stroke and
level the oars horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and
aft is ________________________.
A: "Oars"
B: "Up oars"
C: "Way enough"
D: "Hold water"
1490: You are reading the draft marks as shown. The water level
forward leaves about 4 inches of the 11 visible, and the
water level aft is at the top of the 10. What is the mean
draft?
A: 10'-06"
B: 10'-08"
C: 10'-10"
D: 11'-02"
1491: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You
will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris
which is marked by what letter?
1492: You have abandoned ship. There are several rafts in the
water. One of the FIRST things to do is ________.
A: separate the rafts as much as possible to increase
chances of detection
B: transfer all supplies to one raft
C: transfer all the injured to one raft
D: secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart
1493: A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The
operating cord should be _____________.
A: attached to the raft stowage cradle or to a secure
object nearby with a weak link
B: checked to see that it's unattached
C: coiled neatly on the raft container
D: faked on deck and lead through a chock
1495: A weight of 350 tons is loaded on your vessel 85 feet
forward of the tipping center. The vessel's MT1 is 1150
foot-tons. What is the total change of trim?
A: 12.93 inches
B: 23.75 inches
C: 25.87 inches
D: 38.50 inches
1496: Your vessel has been holed in #1 hold and partially flooded.
The hole is plugged against further flooding. In
calculating the effect of the flooding on your transverse
stability, you should use which method?
A: Compartment standard method
B: Lost buoyancy method
C: Factor of subdivision method
D: Added weight method
1497: While operating off Panama a seaman is injured.
What indicator should be included in the preamble of a
radiotelegram requesting medical advice from a Panamanian
station?
A: RADIO MEDICAL
B: DH MEDICO
C: XXX
D: MEDRAD
1498: The spread of fire is prevented by _____________.
A: cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire
B: leaving combustibles in the endangered area
C: increasing the oxygen supply
D: All of the above
1499: A cargo of 60 tons is to be loaded on deck 20 feet from the
ship's centerline. The vessel's displacement including the
60 ton cargo will be 6,000 tons and the GM two feet. The
list of the vessel after loading this cargo will be _______.
A: 5.4ø
B: 5.72ø
C: 6.12ø
D: 6.4ø
1500: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load
shown. Use the white pages of THe Stability Data Reference
Book to determine the available GM.
A: Available GM 6.9 ft
B: Available GM 5.3 ft
C: Available GM 4.1 ft
D: Available GM 3.8 ft
1501: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown.
You will be heading almost due north when you head for
Polaris which is marked by which letter?
1502: A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher
would be most useful in combating a fire in _____________.
A: generators
B: oil drums
C: the bridge controls
D: combustible metals
1503: If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your
legs should be _________________.
A: spread apart as far as possible
B: held as tightly against your chest as possible
C: in a kneeling position
D: extended straight down and crossed at the ankles
1504: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG. The
water level is about 4 inches below the bottom of 10. What
is the draft?
A: 10'-04"
B: 10'-02"
C: 9'-08"
D: 9'-04"
1505: What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding
an inflatable liferaft?
A: Open equipment pack.
B: Post a lookout.
C: Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
D: Pick up other survivors.
1506: Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered
lifeboat, what need NOT be checked?
A: Fuel supply line valve
B: Pressure registered on the accumulator gauge
C: Cold-spark voltage readings test lamp
D: Engine stop control
1507: A thrust block is designed to _____________.
A: absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow
B: be placed between the engines and the foundation to absorb
the vibration
C: transmit the thrust of the engine to the propeller
D: transmit the thrust of the propeller to the vessel
1508: Portable foam fire-extinguishers are designed for use on
class ______.
A: A and class B fires
B: A and class C fires
C: B and class C fires
D: A, class B, and class C fires
1509: You are using an oxygen indicator. How long should you wait
after the sample is drawn into the instrument before reading
the meter?
A: No wait is necessary, the reading occurs immediately.
B: At least 5 seconds
C: At least 10 seconds
D: At least 20 seconds
1510: You have received a General Emergency message announcing the
outbreak of war in Europe without the use of nuclear weapons
and are directed to comply with the instructions in DMAHTC
PUB 117, Chapter nine. Which statement is TRUE?
A: If on a coastwise voyage along the east coast of the U.S.,
you should put into the nearest port.
B: You should only enter a port in the danger zone during hours
of darkness.
C: When over 200 hundred miles from a port in the danger zone,
you should not darken ship.
D: You should discontinue AMVER reporting.
1511: Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who
have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?
A: Ration food and water supplies.
B: Take anti-seasickness pills, if available.
C: Determine position and closest point of land.
D: Check pyrotechnic supplies.
1512: Where would you find the draft marks on a ship?
A: Deep tanks
B: Voids
C: Midships near the waterline
D: Area of water line near stem and stern
1515: You see an iceberg that has not been reported. What kind
of radio message do you transmit to warn others?
A: Safety message
B: Urgency message
C: Distress message
D: Routine message
1516: While operating off the coast of Portugal, a seaman is
injured. What indicator should be used in a message
requesting medical advice from a Portuguese station?
A: MEDICAL RADIO
B: DH MEDICO
C: XXX RADIOMEDICAL
D: PORT HEALTH
1517: A double male coupling is one that ______________.
A: has left hand twist
B: has inside threads on both ends
C: has outside threads on both ends
D: takes two men to operate
1518: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the
signal flag "J" hoisted. What should you do?
A: Keep well clear of the vessel because she is on fire and has
dangerous cargo on board or she is leaking dangerous cargo.
B: Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she
is requesting to communicate.
C: Approach the vessel with caution because she is dragging her
anchor.
D: Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is
requesting a tug.
1519: All oil spills must be reported to the ________________.
A: U.S. Corps of Engineers
B: U.S. Coast Guard
C: local police
D: local fire department
1520: When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat
the ________.
A: fuel supply valve should be closed
B: hatches, doors,and oar ports should be closed
C: air cylinder shut-off valve should be closed
D: engine should be shut off
1521: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You
will be heading almost due north when you head for Polaris
which is marked by what letter?
1522: The pollution prevention regulations in MARPOL apply to U.
S. flag vessels _____.
A: only on the Great Lakes and international waters
B: only on the western rivers and international waters
C: on international voyages outside U.S. territorial waters
D: on all international and inland waters
1523: The term "oil" as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations
means ________.
A: fuel oil
B: sludge
C: oil refuse
D: All of the above
1524: A U.S. merchant vessel in ocean service is NOT subject
tothe requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 _____.
A: outside of 25 nautical miles from nearest land
B: outside of the navigable waters of the United States
C: in the waters of those countries not signatory to MARPOL
D: A U.S. vessel in ocean service is ALWAYS subject to MARPOL.
1525: You are reading the draft marks in illustration D032DG.
The top 2 inches of number 9 are visible above the
waterline. What is the draft?
A: 8'-10"
B: 9'-02"
C: 9'-04"
D: 9'-08"
1526: Which type of portable fire extinguishers is NOT designed
for use on flammable liquid fires?
A: Foam
B: Dry chemical
C: Water (cartridge-operated)
D: Carbon dioxide
1527: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your
vessel's position as required, you must include __________.
A: latitude, longitude and approximate depth of water
B: latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that
days noon position slip
C: latitude, longitude, and estimated distance from shore
D: latitude and longitude only
1528: You are offloading garbage to another ship. Your records
must identify that ship by name and show her __________.
A: home port
B: next port-of-call
C: official number
D: Master
1529: Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal
records must be kept ____________.
A: until the end of the voyage
B: until the next Coast Guard inspection
C: one year
D: two years
1530: Which vessel in ocean service is not subject to Annex V
of MARPOL 73/79?
A: A 20-foot sailing vessel
B: A 26-foot tug and tow
C: An uninspected 35-foot passenger vessel
D: A Navy Destroyer
1531: You intend to discharge medical or hazardous wastes
ashore. MARPOL Annex V requires you to notify a receiving
port or terminal in advance. How much advance notice is
required?
A: 12 hours
B: 24 hours
C: 48 hours
D: Advance notification is not required.
1532: You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars indicated in
illustration D005SA. You will be heading due north when you
head for Polaris, which is indicated by what letter?
1533: Which statement is TRUE?
A: You need not keep a record of ground garbage dumped into
the sea more than 25 miles offshore.
B: You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on
the ship.
C: You must keep a record of the approximate weight of
the garbage dumped.
D: You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to
a shore facility.
1534: Which statement is TRUE?
A: You must keep a record of garbage discharged in port to
a shore facility.
B: You need not keep a record of dumping ground garbage
in to the sea more than 25 miles offshore.
C: You must keep a record of the approximate weight of
the garbage dumped.
D: You need not keep a record of garbage incinerated on
the ship.
1535: Limit switches _________________.
A: control the descent rate of a lifeboat
B: control the ascent rate of a lifeboat
C: cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final
stowed position
D: cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the
davit bumpers
1536: Which types of portable fire extinguishers are designed for
putting out electrical fires?
A: Foam and water (stored pressure)
B: Foam and carbon dioxide
C: Foam and dry chemical
D: Dry chemical and carbon dioxide
1537: How should longitude 119ø56.3' W be written when preparing
an AMVER report?
A: V19.9
B: 120øW
C: 119.9W
D: 11956W
1538: Your oceangoing vessel is required to have a waste
management plan. This plan must be in writing and describe
procedures for ____________________.
A: collecting and discharging garbage
B: disposing waste from marine sanitation devices
C: reducing the amount of shipboard waste
D: segregating the different types of shipboard waste
1539: The AMVER system requires _____________.
A: sailing plans to be sent within 8 hours of departure
B: more frequent reports in heavy weather
C: arrival reports to be sent within 8 hours of arrival
D: a position report within 24 hours of departure
1540: Which statement concerning the collection of fresh water is
FALSE?
A: Fresh water may be obtained from fish.
B: Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain
before drinking water is collected.
C: Fresh water may be collected from condensation inside the
life raft.
D: Seawater should never be consumed.
1541: Which would be considered pollution under the U.S. water
pollution laws?
A: Garbage
B: Hazardous substances
C: Oil
D: All of the above
1542: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
08'-04", AFT 13'-08". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of THe Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 1.91 feet
B: 2.09 feet
C: 2.21 feet
D: 2.48 feet
1543: The ship station license for your radiotelephone is valid
for ____________.
A: one year
B: three years
C: five years
D: six years
1544: While operating your oceangoing vessel you must keep a
record of any discharge or disposal of garbage. These
entries shall be made __________________________.
A: before the end of the voyage
B: before arriving at your next port
C: no later than 24 hours after disposal of the garbage
D: at the time the garbage was disposed
1545: Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing hooks to
prevent ____.
A: the falls from unhooking if the releasing gear is operated
accidentally while the boat is being lowered
B: operation of the release lever until the boat is waterborne
C: the falls from rehooking after they have been released
D: accidental unhooking when the falls become slack
1546: What are the most important reasons for using water fog to
fight fires?
A: Smothers burning surfaces, organically destroys fuel
B: Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective
barrier
C: Reaches areas not protected by steam or CO2 smothering
systems
D: Allows fire to be attacked from leeward, saturates liquid
surfaces
1547: If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT _____.
A: wear as much clothing as possible
B: enter the water feet first
C: swim with the wind
D: cover eyes with one hand when entering the water
1548: You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft
and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your
FIRST actions should be to ______________.
A: take measures to maintain morale
B: prepare and use radio equipment
C: identify the person in charge of liferaft
D: search for survivors
1549: You are sailing in a strong wind and may accidentally jibe
when _______________.
A: reaching
B: tacking
C: running-free
D: in irons
1550: The purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat is
to _____.
A: cool the lifeboat engine
B: keep the lifeboat from reaching combustion temperature while
operating in a fire
C: keep the lifeboat warm in a cold climate by applying heated
water spray from the engine to the boat
D: put out a fire inside the lifeboat
1551: On inspected cargo vessels, each fire station is required to
be fitted with a hose which has a nominal diameter of _____.
A: 1-1/2 or 2-1/2 inches
B: 2 or 3 inches
C: 2-1/2 or 3-1/2 inches
D: 3 or 4 inches
1552: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND A sailing vessel must keep
course and speed when ______________.
A: being overtaken
B: to windward of another sailing vessel
C: to leeward of another sailing vessel
D: crossing a vessel engaged in fishing
1553: What is an advantage of using foam in fire fighting?
A: It is effective in controlling fire in flowing oil such as
coming from a broken fuel line.
B: It absorbs heat from materials that could cause reignition.
C: Most foams can be used jointly with dry chemical
extinguishing agents to attack a fire by two methods
of extinguishment.
D: Once the surface is blanketed with foam and the fire is
extinguished, no further foam is required.
1554: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 32'-04", AFT
34'-02". The KG is 31.5 feet. Use the salmon pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list
if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt
water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).
A: 3.4²
B: 4.7²
C: 6.4²
D: 7.9²
1555: Seawater may be used for drinking ______________.
A: at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
B: after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water
C: if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
D: under no conditions
1556: Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for
absorbing heat?
A: Water
B: Foam
C: Dry chemical
D: Carbon Dioxide
1557: When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will
_____.
A: completely stop the lifeboat from drifting
B: help to prevent broaching
C: prevent the lifeboat from pitching
D: None of the above
1558: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight
loss and pressure loss. What minimum percentage of the full
pressure can be lost before the cylinder must be recharged?
A: 3%
B: 5%
C: 10%
D: 15%
1559: The capacity of any life raft on board a vessel can be
determined by ______________________.
A: examining the Certificate of Inspection
B: examining the plate on the outside of the raft container
C: referring to the station bill
D: referring to the shipping articles
1560: The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills
as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to ______.
A: assist in sleeping
B: reduce appetite by decreasing nausea
C: prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting
D: prevent impaired judgement due to motion-induced
deliriousness
1561: Which is NOT a mandatory part of the shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan?
A: Reporting requirements
B: Diagrams
C: Steps to control a discharge
D: National and local coordination
1562: Drinking salt water will _______________.
A: protect against heat camps
B: prevent seasickness
C: be safe if mixed with fresh water
D: dehydrate you
1563: Who should inspect and test an inflatable life raft?
A: The person in charge
B: The manufacturer or authorized representative
C: Shipyard personnel
D: A certificated lifeboatman
1564: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing
and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable
fire extinguisher?
A: Insure the chemical is powdery.
B: Replace the cartridge.
C: Pressure test the discharge hose.
D: Test the pressure gauge for proper operation.
1565: What correctly expresses the time of 1122 (ZD +6) on 6 April
1981, for use in an AMVER report?
A: 061722Z
B: 06 1122 ZD+6
C: G1722 06APR81
D: 1122Z6 06APR
1566: CO2 extinguishes a fire by _____.
A: cooling
B: smothering
C: chemical action
D: All of the above
1567: Your vessel is carrying 84,000 barrels of oil for discharge.
The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of 14 inches. When
four hoses are connected to the manifold, the container
around the manifold must hold a total of how many barrels?
A: Three
B: Four
C: Twelve
D: Sixteen
1568: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed.
There is already 2464 tons of cargo on board with a KG of
27.3 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo
after loading is completed.
A: KG 27.0 feet
B: KG 27.8 feet
C: KG 28.6 feet
D: KG 29.8 feet
1569: Which list is NOT required to be provided as part of the
appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
A: A list of agencies or officials of Coastal State
Administrators responsible for receiving and processing
incident reports.
B: A list of agences or officials in regularly visited ports.
C: A list specifying who will be responsible for informing
the parties listed and the priority in which they must
be notified.
D: A list of personnel duty assignments.
1570: Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan?
A: Reporting requirements
B: Removal equipment list
C: Planned exercises
D: List of individuals required to respond
1571: A Halon 1301 cylinder is periodically tested for weight loss
and pressure loss. It must be recharged if it has lost more
than what minimum percentage of its weight?
A: 3%
B: 5%
C: 10%
D: 15%
1572: Your fishing vessel operates more than 25 miles from the
coastline on the Great Lakes. Which distress signal is NOT
required to be on board?
A: 3 red parachute flares
B: 6 red hand flares
C: 1 electric distress light
D: 3 orange smoke signals
1574: Your vessel is more than 3 miles off the coast. What is the
maximum civil penalty PER DAY that you may be fined for any
violation of the MARPOL 73/78 Act to Prevent Pollution from
Ships?
A: $ 1,000
B: $ 5,000
C: $10,000
D: $25,000
1575: Foam extinguishes a fire by ___________________________.
A: smothering the burning material
B: chemical combination with burning material
C: absorbing the burning material
D: organic destruction of the burning material
1576: What is the minimum number of bolts required in
a permanently connected flange oil hose coupling?
A: A bolt must be used in every hole.
B: 6
C: 4
D: 3
1577: What is the minimum number of bolts required in a temporary
bolted flange oil hose coupling?
A: 3
B: 4
C: 6
D: A bolt must be used in every hole.
1578: You may not act as person-in-charge of oil transfer
operations on more than one vessel at a time _____________.
A: under any circumstances
B: unless authorized by the Captain of the Port
C: unless radio communication is set up between the vessels
D: unless the vessels are moored clear of all docks
1579: During oil transfer operations, who is responsibe for
ensuring that the posted transfer procedures are followed?
A: The designated person in charge
B: The tankerman
C: The senior able seaman
D: The oiler
1580: Which statement is TRUE concerning the placard entitled
"Discharge of Oil Prohibited"?
A: It is required on all vessels.
B: It is only required in the wheelhouse.
C: It may be located at the bilge and ballast pump
control station.
D: All of the above
1581: When using the oxygen indicator, which reaction from the
needle should you expect as a sample is drawn into the
instrument?
A: Rise to the correct reading and then, slowly fall to zero
as the oxygen in the sample is consumed
B: Move back and forth and finally stabilize at the correct
reading after about 10 seconds
C: Rise to the correct reading immediately and then rise slowly
to a false reading as the operating temperature increases
D: Slowly rise to the correct reading and then remain
stationary
1582: You are off the coast of South Africa, when a seaman is
injured. What indicator should be used in a message
requesting medical advice from a South African station?
A: DH MEDICO
B: XXX RADIOMEDICAL
C: MEDRAD
D: PORT HEALTH
1583: You are having a Coast Guard inspection. All carbon dioxide
fire extinguishers aboard will be _____.
A: weighed
B: discharged and recharged
C: checked for pressure loss
D: sent ashore to an approved service facility
1584: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost
boat on the port side is designated as boat number _____.
1586: The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the
__________.
A: size of the fire when initially observed
B: complete containment of the fire
C: cooling ability of the firefighting agent
D: class of the fire
1587: A lifeboat is weight tested by lowering to near the water
and loading to capacity with weight evenly distributed. It
is then lowered into the water and released. This test must
be done at least once every _____________.
A: 6 months
B: 12 months
C: 18 months
D: 24 months
1588: How should longitude 119²16.7' E be written when preparing
an AMVER report?
A: 11917E
B: Q193
C: 119.3²E
D: 119E
1589: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to load the cargo listed.
There is already 3284 tons of cargo on board with a KG of
26.4 feet. Use the white pages of the Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final KG of all the cargo
after loading is completed.
A: KG 25.0 feet
B: KG 25.5 feet
C: KG 26.1 feet
D: KG 26.7 feet
1590: After a vessel transmits the original distress message, what
signal should be sent to allow ships to take RDF bearings?
A: SOS three times
B: Additional transmissions to aid direction finding
C: E for one minute, followed by T for one minute
D: Two tones, 10-15 seconds each
1591: You discharge garbage overboard at sea. When recording your
vessel's position as required, you must include __________.
A: latitude, longitude, and approximate depth of water
B: latitude, longitude, and estimated distance from shore
C: latitude and longitude only
D: latitude, longitude, course, speed, and a copy of that
days noon position slip
1592: A vessel has a cargo hold divided by a shaft alley into two
tanks, each 35 feet long and 20 feet wide. Each tank is half
filled with sea water. The vessel displaces 5,000 tons.
The reduction in GM due to free surface effect is _________.
A: .27 foot
B: .30 foot
C: .31 foot
D: .33 foot
1594: Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard
tank vessels?
A: They may be worn while working on deck but not while
working over the side.
B: They must be used only under supervision of a
designated ship's officer.
C: They will be accepted for up to 10% of the required
life preservers.
D: They may be worn during drills.
1597: Which characteristic is an advantage of Halon as a fire
extinguishing medium?
A: Electrically non-conductive
B: Relatively inexpensive
C: Effective against chemicals containing an oxidizer
D: All of the above
1598: On board a small passenger vessel connections to
electric conductors MUST be ___________.
A: made within enclosures
B: served and parcelled
C: installed only by a licensed marine electrician
D: Be inspected annually
1599: All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must
be equipped with how many Emergency Position Indicating
Radiobeacons (EPIRB)?
A: One approved Class A EPIRB
B: Two approved Class A EPIRBs
C: One approved Class B EPIRBs
D: Two approved Class B EPIRBs
1600: You are berthed at a cargo facility where you have just
completed discharging a dangerous cargo. You must complete
topside repairs involving hot work before sailing. Which of
the following statements is TRUE?
A: You can make repairs with permission of the facility
owner since you are empty and the cargo is on the facility.
B: The repair area must be inspected by a marine surveyor to
ensure that it can be done safely.
C: Hot work repairs at such a facility are prohibited.
D: The Captain of the Port may give specific approval to make
hot work repairs.
1601: Channel 13 is primarily used for ship to ship communication.
Channel 13 is also authorized for _____.
A: coast to aircraft operational communications
B: aircraft to ship operational communications
C: lock & bridge communications
D: aircraft to ship navigational communications
1603: During loading and discharging operations, in addition to
when the cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert
gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas
pressure of ________________.
A: 150 millimeters of water pressure
B: 125 millimeters of water pressure
C: 100 millimeters of water pressure
D: 75 millimeters of water pressure
1605: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER
report?
A: MD
B: MT
C: PA
D: NURSE
1606: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
08'-04", AFT 13'-08". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 1.91 feet
B: 2.09 feet
C: 2.21 feet
D: 2.48 feet
1607: A bilge suction line, in a fishing vessel with more than 16
individuals aboard, must have a strainer with an open area
not less than how many times the open area of the suction
line?
A: one
B: two
C: three
D: four
1608: Cold water, in commercial fishing, means water where the
monthly mean low water temperature is normally ___________.
A: 39² Fahrenheit or less
B: 44² Fahrenheit or less
C: 49² Fahrenheit or less
D: 59² Fahrenheit or less
1610: An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be LEAST
effective against a fire in __________.
A: a mattress
B: spilled liquids such as oil or paint
C: high voltage electrical gear
D: a trash can
1611: How should longitude 116²54.09' E be written when preparing
an AMVER report?
A: Q1169
B: 116.9E
C: 11655E
D: 117E
1612: Which action is routinely performed at the annual servicing
and inspection of a dry-chemical cartridge-operated portable
fire extinguisher?
A: Test the pressure gauge for correct reading.
B: Weigh the cartridge.
C: Replace the dry chemical.
D: Pressure test the discharge hose.
1613: Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause
it to _____________________.
A: capsize
B: run smoother
C: run faster
D: sink
1614: You may have to give artificial respiration after
an accidental ____________.
A: drowning
B: electrocution
C: poisoning
D: All of the above
1615: When administering artificial respiration, it is MOST
important to _____.
A: monitor blood pressure
B: clear airways
C: use the rhythmic pressure method
D: know all approved methods
1617: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion
foam will ____________.
A: be wetter
B: be lighter
C: be more heat resistant
D: not cling to vertical surfaces
1618: Which characteristic of Halon is a disadvantage when it is
used as a fire extinguishing medium?
A: Leaves a residue
B: Cost, relative to other agents
C: Breaks down while under prolonged storage
D: Conducts electricity
1619: A conscious victim who has suffered a blow to the head has
symptoms that indicate the possibility of concussion. If
the patient feels no indication of neck or spine injury,
recommended treatment would include _____________________.
A: turning the victims's head to the side to keep his
airway open
B: positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body
C: giving the victim water if he is thirsty, but no food
D: elevating the head slightly with a pillow
1620: One disadvantage of using regular dry chemical (sodium
bicarbonate) in firefighting is that _____.
A: it can break down under high heat and emit noxious fumes
B: it will decompose under prolonged storage and lose its
effectiveness
C: fire has been known to flash back over the surface of an oil
fire
D: it is ineffective in fighting fires in high-voltage
electrical equipment
1621: Why is spare fire hose rolled for storage?
A: Water in the hose is forced out the end in the rolling
process.
B: The threads on the male end are protected by the hose.
C: Rolling provides maximum protection against entry of foreign
objects into the couplings.
D: Rolling provides maximum protection to the outer covering
of the hose.
1622: You are preparing to take another vessel in tow. Which
signal indicates, "Hawser is made fast"?
A: Firing of a green star signal
B: Firing of a red star signal
C: An orange smoke signal
D: Three white star rockets at 1-minute intervals
1623: When testing a class A EPIRB, you need to use _____.
A: nothing other than the test indicator on the top of the
EPIRB
B: an ordinary FM radio
C: the test meter supplied by the manufacturer
D: a voltage meter indicating in the 0.5 to 12 volt range
1624: A sail plan, including the vessel's itinerary, name, number,
and persons aboard, should be filed with _____________.
A: the FAA
B: the Coast Guard
C: U.S. Customs
D: a responsible person
1625: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You
must ___________________.
A: immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
B: make the victim comfortable in a bunk
C: administer oxygen
D: immediately start CPR
1626: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing.
You must _____.
A: administer oxygen
B: immediately check his pulse and start CPR
C: make the victim comfortable in a bunk
D: immediately give a stimulant, by force if necesssary
1627: The canvas covering of fire hose is called the _________.
A: casing
B: outer hose
C: line cover
D: jacket
1628: You are running before a rough sea and a strong wind. Your
sailing vessel is yawing. If the wind should catch the
mainsail on the reverse side you will ______________.
A: broach
B: tack
C: jibe
D: go in irons
1629: Which statement is TRUE about fire fighting foam?
A: The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting
a class C fire.
B: The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a
burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid
increases.
C: Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed
gas cylinders.
D: Foam sets up a vapor barrier over a flammable liquid
preventing flammable gases from rising.
1630: A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one
end is discolored from heat. The cargo is valuable and
easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire
without further damage if possible. What action should you
take?
A: Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and
discharge CO2 into the container.
B: Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo
damage as the fire threatens the entire vessel.
C: Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2's
then add more CO2 hourly.
D: Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all
vents; then keep it cooled until it can be off-loaded.
1631: According to Coast Guard Regulations (CFR 33), all ships are
required to prepare, submit, and maintain a(n) __________.
A: synthetic plastic discharge plan
B: oil discharge plan
C: shipboard oil pollution emergency plan
D: vapor recovery procedures plan
1632: When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the
male outlet of the hydrant, you should make sure that
the _________________.
A: threads are lubricated
B: nozzle is attached to the hose
C: female coupling has a gasket
D: hose is led out
1633: The SS NORTHLAND is loaded to drafts: FWD 18'-07", AFT
19'-05". The KG is 33.6 feet. Use the salmon pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book to determine the angle of list
if #6 starboard tank is fully loaded with 1624 tons of salt
water ballast (VCG is 36.5 feet off the centerline).
A: 4.0²
B: 7.1²
C: 8.0²
D: 9.5²
1634: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should
__________.
A: close all openings to the area
B: shut off all electrical power
C: remove combustibles from direct exposure
D: cool the bulkhead around the fire
1635: Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect
attack on a fire?
A: Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to
create spray effect
B: Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and
over a pool of burning oil
C: Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment
D: Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread
of the fire by conduction
1636: How should latitude 54²18.9' N be written when preparing an
AMVER report?
A: 54.3N
B: 0543N
C: 5419N
D: 54²N
1637: Which is a disadvantage of Halon as a fire extinguishing
medium?
A: Conducts electricity
B: Difficult to store
C: Large volume necessary to be effective
D: Ineffective in powdered metal fires
1639: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER
report?
A: NONE
B: NURSE
C: MD
D: DOCTOR
1640: A Halon 1301 cylinder contains 100 pounds of liquid at 360
psi. It must be recharged when the weight drops below how
many pounds of liquid?
1644: Tankers of 100,000 DWT (metric) or more, built after January
1, 1975, carrying grade "A" cargo must have a Coast Guard
approved inert gas system capable of supplying ___________.
A: arbitrary gas mixture with a continuous oxygen content of 8%
or less by volume
B: inert gas at 150% of combined maximum rated capacities of
all cargo pumps operated simultaneously
C: and maintaining a gas pressure of 100 MM (4 inches) of water
on filled cargo tanks during loading and unloading
D: all of the above
1646: What is the report identifier code for an AMVER departure
point?
1648: What is an advantage of using foam in fire fighting?
A: It is MOST effective on very hot oil fires where the
temperatures of the liquid exceed 100ø C (212ø F).
B: Most foams can be used with dry chemicals to attack a fire
by two methods.
C: Foam is effective on combustible metal fires.
D: Foam can be made with seawater or fresh water.
1649: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads
up from a beam reach to close hauled the _______________.
A: true wind velocity increases
B: heeling moment decreases
C: side slip decreases
D: jib sheet must be hardened up
1650: When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam
will _____.
A: be drier
B: be heavier
C: be more heat resistant
D: not cling to vertical surfaces
1651: Machinery lube oil sumps are NOT permitted to be drained
into the bilges of _____.
A: vessels without a bilge oil pump
B: vessels over 100 gross tons
C: vessels within 50 miles of the U.S. shoreline
D: vessels registered in the United States
1652: An inland oil barge must have equipment available to remove
an on-deck oil spill of at least _____________________.
A: one barrel
B: two barrels
C: five barrels
D: ten barrels
1653: Before operating a non-oceangoing ship greater than 100
gross tons it must have a fixed piping system to discharge
oily mixtures ashore. This system must
include_______________.
A: approved oily-water separating equipment
B: a fixed or portable containment system at the shore
connection
C: a spare pump in case the main pump is inoperative
D: at least one outlet accessible from the weather deck
1654: You are operating a ship greater than 400 gross tons. You
are NOT permitted to carry oil or hazardous materials in
a(n) ___________.
A: forepeak tank
B: afterpeak tank
C: deep tank
D: on-deck portable tank
1655: Which space(s) on your cargo vessel must have a fire
detection system?
A: Any compartment containing explosives
B: Any compartment adjacent to one containing explosives
C: Enclosed spaces which are "specially suitable for vehicles"
D: All of the above
1657: Where do you obtain approved placards containing
instructions for the launching and inflation of an approved
inflatable liferaft?
A: Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
B: The manufacturer of the liferaft
C: Maritime Administration
D: The owner of the vessel on which the liferafts are carried
1658: Class C EPIRBs may be carried on board ________.
A: deep-draft vessels on the high seas
B: fishing vessels
C: small passenger vessels on the Great Lakes
D: deep-draft vessels in coastwise service
1659: You have berthed in a port area with other tank vessels.
What signal is displayed by a vessel to indicate it is
transferring flammable or combustible liquid cargo?
A: A flashing yellow light
B: A red light visible all around the horizon
C: A green light visible all around the horizon
D: An illuminated red and yellow caution flag
1660: If the meter needle of the oxygen indicator cannot be set
to zero, what should be done?
A: Replace the batteries.
B: Check the sampling tube for blockage.
C: Adjust the final reading by the amount the needle is
displaced from zero.
D: Replace the platinum filament.
1661: What is the maximum number of crew members that may be
berthed in one room aboard your cargo vessel?
A: Two
B: Four
C: Six
D: Eight
1662: By regulation, your cargo vessel must have _____________.
A: sufficient facilities for the crew to wash their clothes
B: a wash basin in each room
C: separate toilet facilities for engineers where their number
exceeds six
D: All of the above
1663: Which tank barges require draft marks?
A: All tank barges
B: Tank barges over 50 GT
C: Tank barges over 100 GT
D: Notch barges over 1000 GT
1664: The number of fire extinguishers required on an uninspected
"motor vessel" is based on the vessel's _____.
A: length
B: gross tonnage
C: draft
D: crew list
1665: Which statement about stowing spare hose is TRUE?
A: Fold the hose so that the male coupling is about 4 feet
from the female coupling, then roll it up.
B: Roll the hose starting at the female end.
C: Roll the hose starting at the male end.
D: Fold the hose into lengths about 6 feet long and then
lash the folds together.
1666: The SS AMERICAN MARINER has the following drafts: FWD
08'-04", AFT 13'-08". Upon completion of loading and
bunkering the items listed will be on board. Use the white
pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to determine the
minimum GM required to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 1.91 feet
B: 2.09 feet
C: 2.21 feet
D: 2.48 feet
1667: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You
must _____________.
A: immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary
B: make the victim comfortable in a bunk
C: immediately start CPR
D: administer oxygen
1668: What is the report identifier code for an AMVER deviation
report?
1669: You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you
can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying
out a search pattern. You should __________.
A: switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode
B: use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to
guide the aircraft to your raft
C: turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB
D: use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB
1670: You are testing a class A EPIRB. You will know the EPIRB is
working properly when the indicator light comes on, and you
hear over the test frequency ___________.
A: a distinctive tone
B: the Morse Code for SOS
C: a computerized voice saying Mayday
D: the Morse signal for your vessel's call letters
1671: When should the full power test of a class A EPIRB be made?
A: At any time
B: Minute 00 to 05 of any hour
C: Minute 15 to 18 or 45 to 48 of any hour
D: Any day between 0700 to 0800 GMT
1672: Which of the following would be considered downflooding on a
fishing vessel as defined in regulation?
A: Vessel heels until water enters a hatch.
B: Vessel in collision floods through a damaged area above the
waterline.
C: Vessel takes on water due to the hatches being left open in
heavy rain.
D: Vessel takes on water by the propeller shaft due to failure
of the stern gland.
1673: In commercial fishing, "cold water" means water where the
monthly mean low water temperature is normally _________.
A: 39ø Fahrenheit or less
B: 44ø Fahrenheit or less
C: 49ø Fahrenheit or less
D: 59ø Fahrenheit or less
1674: You are requisitioning stores for your tank vessel. What
type of matches are permitted aboard?
A: Phosphorous
B: Safety
C: Self-extinguishing
D: Wooden
1675: What entry would NOT be shown on the V line of an AMVER
report?
A: MED TECH
B: MD
C: NONE
D: NURSE
1676: Before you start an engine in a compartment, it's MOST
important to _____.
A: check the flame arrester
B: check the fuel tank
C: check the battery
D: ventilate the bilges
1677: After an engine is started you should _____________.
A: increase engine speed to insure adequate flow of oil to all
parts of the engine
B: pay no attention unless there are unusual noises from the
engine
C: check operating pressures and temperatures, and check
forleaks
D: run the engine at idle until the temperature has increased
1678: Your vessel is 79 feet long with 20 people aboard.
Thecoaming of a deck above the lowest weather deck (except
anexposed forecastle deck) must be at least _________.
A: 6" high
B: 12" high
C: 24" high
D: Not required
1679: You are on a 92 foot fishing vessel with 35 individuals
on board. Which one of the following items are you NOT
required to have on board?
A: Gyro compass
B: Magnetic compass
C: Electronic positon fixing device
D: VHF radiotelephone
1680: The lifeboat compass is usually ____________.
A: placed in a fixed bracket when being used
B: clamped to any position convenient for the coxswain to
see it
C: permanently mounted on the lifeboat's centerline
D: mounted in the center of the boat to eliminate deviation
1681: An LWT anchor often has difficulty tripping in ________.
A: sand
B: soft soil
C: stiff clay
D: heterogeneous soil
1682: Which radio call-in plan is the most prudent?
A: There must be a designated responsible person who will be
available to receive your call at anytime.
B: There must be specific instructions for the designated
responsible person to follow if your call does not come inon
schedule.
C: The designated responsible person must be instructed to call
the Coast Guard search and rescue authorities immediately
ifyour call does not come in on schedule.
D: The designated responsible person should be over 18 years
ofage.
1683: You are running before a strong wind in a sloop. The most
dangerous thing to do is ___________________.
A: jibe
B: tack about
C: reef the mainsail
D: strike the jib
1684: You are sailing before the wind in heavy weather. The
failure of what will affect the vessel's safety most?
A: The main halyard
B: The jib sheet
C: The helm
D: The outhaul
1685: A storm is forecast for the area where your vessel is
moored. For its safety you should put _________________.
A: more slack in the mooring lines
B: a strain on the mooring lines
C: chafing gear on the mooring lines
D: grease on the mooring lines
1686: How many B-II fire extinguishers must be in the machinery
space of a 175-foot long fishing vessel propelled by engines
with 2300 brake horsepower?
1687: The old sailors admonition "Beware the lee shore" warns of
the danger due to _____________________.
A: the wind blowing stronger at this location
B: the ground swell making it difficult to tack off
C: the current flowing directly on shore
D: there being less wind in the lee of the shore
1688: Each commercial fishing vessel must have at least one
immersion suit, exposure suit, or life preserver for each
_______________.
A: person aboard
B: person working on deck
C: crew member
D: None of the above are correct.
1689: You must pick up an individual who has fallen overboard from
a sailboat The final approach should be ___________________.
A: upwind
B: downwind
C: on a close reach
D: on a broad reach
1690: The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings
of a lifeboat are painted which color?
A: International orange
B: Yellow
C: White
D: Red
1691: When anchoring a small sailing vessel in rough weather, the
best anchor line would be composed of _________________.
A: chain-wire
B: chain-manila
C: chain-nylon
D: all chain
1692: You are preparing for what promises to be a rough ocean
passage. Your 120-foot schooner carries a yard on the
foremast, about 50 feet above the water. The yard weighs
about 1000 pounds. If you take the yard down and stow it on
deck for the trip, you will _______________________.
A: increase your vessel's GM
B: decrease the metacentric height
C: give the vessel a gentler roll
D: increase the reserve bouyancy
1693: Every different type of sailing rig can be dangerous in
certain circumstances. Which situation would most likely be
dangerous?
A: A gaff rig is dangerous in a calm wind and sea.
B: A gaff rig is dangerous in a calm wind and large swell.
C: A square rig, such as a ship rig, is dangerous to jibe.
D: A tall, marconi, sloop rig is dangerous to tack.
1694: When repairing a torn sail at sea, you should ___________.
A: use perfectly aligned stitches in old sail cloth so as to
get the strain properly aligned
B: avoid using glued patches on old sail cloth
C: be sure to orient the weave of the patch material, on large
patches, in the same orientation as the sail cloth being
repaired
D: All of the above
1695: In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat
must be insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of
the following is acceptable as an insulator?
A: Hard rubber
B: Canvas
C: Leather
D: Sponge rubber
1696: Which statement(s) is(are) TRUE?
A: Polyester sailcloth, such as Dacron, is resistant to rot due
to moisture but susceptible to UV degradation and should
bekept covered as much as possible.
B: Canvas sailcloth is susceptible to rot due to moisture and
should never be covered when wet.
C: Kevlar sail cloth is susceptible to weakening due to
repeated folding and therefore should be draped loosely
overthe boom when stowed.
D: All of the above are true.
1697: The difference between a class A and a class B EPIRB is
that the class A EPIRB ___________.
A: operates on both military and civilian aircraft distress
frequencies
B: transmits both an alerting signal and a homing signal
C: must be the float free type and automatically activated
D: operates with a greater output of signal power
1698: To prevent a wooden hull from leaking you caulk it ________.
A: after drydocking, while the hull is moist
B: after drydocking, and the hull has dried
C: afloat, where it is leaking
D: afloat, in all accessible areas
1699: On small sailing vessels, the PRIMARY reason for using nylon
in a combination chain-nylon anchor line is to ____________.
A: provide elasticity
B: increase the strength
C: reduce the cost
D: reduce the weight
1700: How often must the impulse-projected line throwing appliance
be test fired?
A: Quarterly
B: Semiannually
C: Annually
D: At the Master's discretion
1701: Movement of liquid in a tank when a vessel inclines causes
an increase in _______________.
A: righting arm
B: metacentric height
C: height of the uncorrected KG
D: natural rolling period
1702: You are sailing at 8 knots on a beam reach in an apparent
wind of 25 knots. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The true wind is a little abaft your beam, at just under 25
knots.
B: The apparent wind at the top of your mast will be slightly
stronger than 25 knots and slightly farther forward than the
wind at deck level.
C: If you turn to a close reach, the apparent wind will reduce
in strength.
D: None of the above are true.
1703: With regard to aerodynamic lift, which statement is TRUE?
A: The majority of thrust a sail develops when close-hauled is
likely to capsize the vessel rather than drive it.
B: When a sail is trimmed too tight, turbulence will break out
on the windward side of the sail and cause a telltale there
to flutter.
C: A properly trimmed sail should have laminar flow on the
windward side and turbulent flow on the leeward side.
D: Adjusting the angle of attack on a mainsail is accomplished
by adjusting the outhaul or the vang, if fitted.
1704: Which statement is TRUE about sail shape?
A: A high-aspect ratio marconi mainsail is more efficient for
downwind sailing than a gaff-rigged mainsail.
B: You should put more belly in a sail in light airs than in a
strong breeze.
C: You can reduce the belly in a boomed mainsail by easing the
sheet.
D: You can move the belly up in a mainsail by easing the luff
tension.
1705: How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to
prevent explosions in cargo tanks?
A: De-energizes the "charged mist" effect.
B: Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool
the flammable vapors.
C: Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo
tank spaces.
D: Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations
to keep them below the lower explosive limit.
1706: The major lift-producing part of a sail is the ____________.
A: leading edge
B: trailing edge
C: head
D: foil
1707: Your 40-foot auxilliary sailing vessel has just run aground
on a bar. She has a relatively long, deep keel and the tide
is falling. You have checked the bilges for damage and
found none. Which is the most prudent action to take
immediately?
A: Sheet the sails in flat to try to heel her over with the
wind and sail off.
B: Start the engine and run it hard in forward to try to drive
over and off the bar.
C: Strike the sails. Then run a kedge anchor out to one side,
hook the main halyard to it, and heave the boat down onto
one side.
D: Take soundings visually, by sounding pole, or leadline all
around the vessel to locate the deepest water.
1708: A chemical additive to LPG gives it a characteristic ______.
A: odor
B: color
C: pressure
D: density
1709: Why is gas-freeing rarely required for LPG cargo tanks?
A: LPG is compatible with all cargos.
B: LPG's high oxygen content makes it nonvolatile.
C: Cargo tanks are inspected less frequently than on
oiltankers.
D: The cargo tanks are used for one type of cargo only.
1711: Which precaution should be taken when testing a line
throwing gun?
A: Never remove the line from the rocket.
B: Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the
horizon.
C: Wear asbestos gloves.
D: All of the above
1713: Line throwing equipment should not be operated __________.
A: during a rain storm
B: in an explosive atmosphere
C: near a lifeboat station
D: by other than licensed officers
1715: After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume
capacity of an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a
pressure, in any cargo tank, with a minimum of ____________.
A: 50 millimeters of water
B: 100 millimeters of water
C: 150 millimeters of water
D: 200 millimeters of water
1716: The control lever for the mechanical disengaging apparatus
in a lifeboat shall ______________________.
A: be painted bright red
B: be secured to a permanent part of the lifeboat structure
C: have the area surrounding the lever painted white
D: All of the above
1717: An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to _________.
A: prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in
tanks
B: blow out cargo lines to prevent gas concentrations
C: dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations
below the lower explosive limit
D: prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing
flammable vapors
1719: Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat?
A: Number of persons allowed
B: length and beam
C: Weight of the boat
D: Home port
1720: Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost
boat on the starboard side is designated as boat number
_______________.
A: 6
B: 5
C: 3
D: 3 STARBOARD
1721: An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of
tank explosions by _____________.
A: eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks
B: removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks
C: blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam
D: reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for
combustion
1722: Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration,
pressure, and temperature of an inert gas system required
to be located?
A: Bridge and engine control consoles
B: Bridge and tank(s) being inerted
C: Main deck and engine control consoles
D: Cargo control and engine control consoles
1726: The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be
determined by ___________________.
A: examining the Certificate of Inspection
B: examining the plate on the outside of the raft container
C: referring to the station bill
D: referring to the shipping articles
1727: Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas
from a flue gas system to the cargo tanks?
A: Exhaust gas pressure
B: High capacity fan
C: Inert gas compressor
D: Natural aspiration
1728: Which of the following represents the maximum percent of
oxygen, by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's
inert gas system, prior to the commencement of crude oil
tank washing?
A: 6%
B: 8%
C: 10%
D: 12%
1729: The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to
prevent ________________.
A: flammable vapors from entering machinery space
B: flue gas escaping to atmosphere
C: inert gas escaping to atmosphere
D: air entering inert gas system
1730: Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo
tanks with a gas, or mixture of gasses, that has an oxygen
content by volume of ____________.
A: 5% or less
B: 10% or less
C: 15% or less
D: 20% or less
1731: Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) permit which of the
following systems to be used for fire prevention and the
simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank vessels?
A: An inert gas system
B: The deck foam system
C: The fire main system
D: A fixed water spray system
1732: The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a
tanker, will be automatically secured if _____________.
A: normal water supply at the water seal is lost
B: the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the
cargo tanks is more than 150øF
C: the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost
D: all of the above
1797: The upper limit of sulphur dioxide permitted to be
maintained in the inert gas should not exceed ___________.
A: 0.08%
B: 0.06%
C: 0.04%
D: 0.02%
1798: The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is
related to the ______.
A: shoreside loading rate
B: maximum cargo pump discharge rate
C: boiler forced draft fan rate
D: size of the largest cargo tank
1799: Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic
shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant.
This valve must close automatically upon ___________.
A: cargo pump failure
B: blower failure
C: deck seal low water level
D: low inert gas temperature
1800: Which U.S. agency issues a Certificate of Financial
Responsibility?
A: Environmental Protection Agency
B: Coast Guard
C: Corps of Engineers
D: Maritime Administration
1801: Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable
instruments to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor
in inert atmospheres and also to measure ____________.
A: nitrogen
B: oxygen
C: carbon dioxide
D: water vapor
1802: The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the
gas of solid and sulphur combustion products, while
simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the
_____________.
A: filter
B: cooler
C: scrubber
D: purifier
1803: On offshore drilling units when two means of escape are
provided from a space above the main deck, one means of
escape must be required for rapid escape to _______.
A: a weather deck
B: the main deck
C: the controlhouse
D: the escape capsules
1804: Your vessel displaces 869 tons and measures 136'L x33'B. You
ship a large wave on the after deck which measures 52'Lx
33'B. The weight of the water is estimated at 52.8
tons. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface before
the water drains overboard?
A: 4.83 feet
B: 5.12 feet
C: 5.46 feet
D: 5.85 feet
1805: A sloop is a sailing vessel with _______________.
A: one mast
B: two masts: with the mizzen stepped abaft the rudder post
C: two masts: with the mizzen stepped forward of the rudder
post
D: two masts: a foremast and a mainmast
1806: Your vessel displaces 562 tons and measures 121'L x 29'B.
You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the
reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains
overboard, if the after deck measures 46'L x 29'B and the
weight of the water is 41 tons?
A: 4.43 feet
B: 4.61 feet
C: 4.86 feet
D: 5.12 feet
1807: Which is standing rigging?
A: Halyards
B: Stays
C: Sheets
D: Downhauls
1808: Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas
scrubber in an inert gas generation system?
A: Cools the inert gas.
B: Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume.
C: Drains off static electricity in the inert gas.
D: Maintains the water seal on the gas main.
1810: Halon extinguishes a fire by ____________.
A: breaking the chain reaction
B: smothering the fire
C: cooling the fire
D: coating the fuel with a nonflammable surface
1811: What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire
aboard ship?
A: Sound the alarm.
B: Attempt to put out the fire.
C: Confine it by closing doors, ports, vents, etc.
D: Call the Master.
1812: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads
up from a beam reach to close hauled the _________________.
A: apparent wind moves forward
B: heeling moment decreases
C: side slip decreases
D: speed increases
1813: On offshore drilling units all sleeping areas, mess areas,
recreational and hospital areas that are adjacent to or
immediately above a storage area or machinery space, paint
locker, washroom, or toilet space must be made __________.
A: watertight
B: weathertight
C: odorproof
D: soundproof
1814: Your vessel displaces 840 tons and measures 146'L x 38'B.
You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains
overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 38'B and the
weight of the water is 76 tons?
A: 8.76 feet
B: 8.93 feet
C: 9.04 feet
D: 9.27 feet
1815: The sails are properly set and trimmed. As a vessel heads
up from a beam reach to close hauled the _______________.
A: speed increases
B: side slip decreases
C: heeling moment decreases
D: apparent wind moves forward
1816: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Except where specifically required
by the rules, a sailing vessel is NOT required to keep out
of the way of a _________.
A: vessel engaged in fishing
B: vessel anchored
C: power-driven pilot vessel on station
D: vessel setting a channel buoy
1817: Offshore drilling units that carry twelve or more persons
on a voyage of more than three days must have a _________.
A: recreation room
B: radar room
C: hospital space
D: navigation space
1819: Your vessel displaces 968 tons and measures 158'L x 40'B.
You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the
reduction to GM due to free surface before the water
drains overboard, if the after deck measures 65'L x 40'B
and the weight of the water is 80 tons?
A: 9.14 feet
B: 9.45 feet
C: 9.68 feet
D: 9.87 feet
1820: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint
in longitude 49²16.3' E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How
should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
A: 030947C MAR
B: 03094703
C: 06470303Z
D: 030647Z MAR
1821: On offshore drilling units where natural ventilation is
provided, each porthole or window must be fitted
with _________.
A: screens
B: portlights
C: covers
D: curtains
1822: Which hazard probably would NOT be encountered when entering
an empty but uncleaned fish hold?
A: Lack of oxygen
B: Methane gas
C: Hydrogen sulfide gas
D: Carbon monoxide
1823: What is the MINIMUM distance a vessel subject to the
requirements of Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 must be located from
nearest land to legally discharge paper trash?
A: 5 nautical miles
B: 10 nautical miles
C: 12 nautical miles
D: 25 nautical miles
1824: Most recreational sailing craft have triangular sails and
are said to be ______________.
A: Gaff rigged
B: Spinnaker rigged
C: Marconi rigged
D: Square rigged
1825: Each drilling unit equipped with helicopter fuel storage
tanks must have the tanks installed as far as practicable
from the ______.
A: landing area and sources of vapor ignition
B: main deck
C: engine room
D: drill floor
1826: Your vessel displaces 747 tons and measures 136'L by 34'B.
You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the
reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains
overboard, if the after deck measures 56'L x 34'B and the
weight of the water is 58.6 tons?
A: 6.04 feet
B: 6.23 feet
C: 6.51 feet
D: 6.76 feet
1827: The helicopter deck on an offshore drilling unit is
required to be fitted with perimeter lights in alternating
colors of _______.
A: red and white
B: yellow and white
C: yellow and blue
D: yellow and red
1828: A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a(n)
___________.
A: ABS marine surveyor
B: certified marine chemist
C: port engineer
D: Coast Guard marine inspector
1829: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 220ø relative
would be __________.
A: close hauled on the port tack
B: close hauled on the starboard tack
C: running before the wind
D: on a broad reach
1830: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint
in longitude 149²16.3' E at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How
should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
A: 030947K MAR
B: 094703K
C: 022347Z
D: 234703Z
1831: A slow and easy motion of a vessel in a seaway is an
indication of a _________________.
A: small GM
B: low center of gravity
C: stiff vessel
D: large GZ
1834: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by
7'D. The vessel's displacement is 986 T and the specific
gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due
to 2 of these tanks being slack?
A: .09 foot
B: .45 foot
C: .88 foot
D: 1.35 feet
1835: On surface type offshore drilling units, each lifeboat and
life raft must be capable of being launched to the water at
the minimum operating draft when the unit has an adverse
trim up to ____________________.
A: 5ø
B: 10ø
C: 15ø
D: 20ø
1836: A ketch-rigged sailing vessel is sailing to windward
with the wind about 50ø on the port bow. All the sails are
set and drawing properly. Which statement is TRUE?
A: If you slack the mizzen sheet, the center of effort
will move aft.
B: If you slack the main sheet, the lift to drag ratio of
the mainsail will increase.
C: If you sheet in the mainsail without changing course,
the vessel will heel farther and speed up.
D: If you strike the mainsail, the center of effort of
the whole rig will move down.
1837: Each life raft, which does not have an indicated maximum
stowage height indicated on the life raft, must be ______.
A: limited to carry no more than 10 persons
B: stowed not more than 59 feet above the lightest waterline
C: stowed in quick release racks
D: inspected every six months
1838: When a sail is reefed, the sail area is _______ .
A: reduced
B: increased
C: widened
D: unchanged
1839: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 020² relative
would be __________.
A: coming about
B: close hauled on the port tack
C: running before the wind
D: on a broad reach on the starboard tack
1840: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint
in longitude 149ø16.3' W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How
should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
A: 030947W
B: 031947Z
C: 031947 88
D: 03MAR1947Z
1844: Your vessel displaces 368 tons and measures 96'L x 28'B.
You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the
reduction to GM due to free surface before the water drains
overboard, if the after deck measures 42'L x 28'B and the
weight of the water is 36 tons?
A: 4.98 feet
B: 5.21 feet
C: 5.43 feet
D: 5.67 feet
1845: What is the minimum number of hand held, rocket propelled,
parachute, red flare, distress signals required on board
offshore drilling units?
1846: You are under sail, and the wind is steady. While steady on
course, you reef the mainsail and your speed slows. The
apparent wind _____________.
A: is unchanged
B: increases and draws aft
C: increases and draws forward
D: decreases and draws aft
1847: An offshore drilling unit must be equipped with a first aid
kit approved by the ____________________________.
A: Coast Guard
B: American Bureau of Shipping
C: Minerals Management Service
D: Mine Safety and Health Administration
1848: Your vessel displaces 477 tons and measures 116'L x 31'B.
You ship a large wave on the after deck. What is the
reduction in GM due to free surface before the water drains
overboard, if the after deck measures 54'L x 31'B and the
weight of the water is 51.5 tons?
A: 6.43 feet
B: 6.75 feet
C: 6.99 feet
D: 7.25 feet
1849: Which line would NOT be used in handling a mainsail?
A: Halyard
B: Downhaul
C: Uphaul
D: Sheet
1850: Your voyage planning indicates you will arrive at a waypoint
in longitude 49²16.3 W at 0947 ZT on 3 March 1988. How
should this date be entered into an AMVER report?
A: 031247Z
B: 030947P
C: 124733 MAR
D: 309473
1851: When using a hand held smoke signal from a lifeboat, you
should activate the signal ___________.
A: on the downwind side
B: on the upwind side
C: inside the boat
D: at the stern
1852: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 32'L by 15'B by
8'D. The vessel's displacement is 640 tons and the specific
gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due
to 2 of these tanks being slack?
A: 0.74 foot
B: 1.24 feet
C: 1.41 feet
D: 1.66 feet
1853: On offshore drilling units each fire station is identified
by letters and numbers at least ______________________.
A: 2 inches high
B: 3 inches high
C: 5 inches high
D: 8 inches high
1854: How is the Master or operator of a vessel required to keep
the crew informed of the regulations concerning the
discharging of garbage overboard?
A: Give each crewmember a copy of ANNEX V of MARPOL.
B: Call an all hands meeting before sailing.
C: Keep placards prominently posted.
D: Have each person read and sign a copy of the regulations.
1855: An offshore drilling unit is required to carry on board an
operations manual approved by the _________________________.
A: Coast Guard
B: National Cargo Bureau
C: Minerals Management Service
D: builder
1856: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180² relative
would be ___________.
A: close hauled on the starboard tack
B: close hauled on the port tack
C: on a broad reach on a port tack
D: running before the wind
1858: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 180² relative
would be ______________.
A: close hauled on the port tack
B: close hauled on the starboard tack
C: running before the wind
D: on a broad reach
1859: The parts of the sail shown are correctly labeled EXCEPT the
___________________.
A: head
B: leach
C: luff
D: tack
1860: You are underway at sea when a fire is reported in the
forward part of the vessel. The wind is from dead ahead at
20 knots. You should _______________________.
A: remain on course and hold speed
B: change course to put the wind on either beam and increase
speed
C: change course and put the stern to the wind
D: remain on course but decrease speed
1861: On offshore drilling units, emergency lighting and each
emergency power system must be tested at least once a
________.
A: day
B: week
C: month
D: year
1862: All electrical appliances aboard a vessel should be grounded
to _____.
A: prevent them from falling when the vessel rolls
B: protect personnel from electrical shock
C: increase their operating efficiency
D: prevent unauthorized personnel from operating them
1863: On offshore drilling units, each storage battery for
emergency lighting and power systems must be tested every
six months under actual connected load for a period of at
least __________________.
A: 1 hour
B: 2 hours
C: 3 hours
D: 4 hours
1864: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 40'L by 20'B by
8'D. The vessel's displacement is 996 T and the specific
gravity of the mud is 1.7. What is the reduction in GM due
to 2 of these tanks being slack?
A: 0.95 foot
B: 1.26 feet
C: 2.10 feet
D: 2.54 feet
1865: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is partially loaded with a GM of 2.6
feet and drafts of: FWD 13'-07", AFT 15'-01". Use the
white pages of the Stability Data Reference Book to
determine what tanks you should ballast to increase the GM
to 3.4 feet.
A: Tanks: DB1, DB3
B: Tanks: DB5, DT1A
C: Tanks: DB6, DB7, DT7
D: Tanks: DB4, DT8
1866: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is ready to sail with the load
shown. Use the white pages of The Stability Data Reference
Book to determine the available GM.
A: Available GM 5.0 ft
B: Available GM 5.4 ft
C: Available GM 6.1 ft
D: Available GM 6.8 ft
1867: Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump garbage
in to the sea you must __________.
A: notify the U.S. Coast Guard
B: make an entry in the Official Logbook
C: keep a record for two years
D: No action is required if you are more than 25 miles
fromland and no plastic materials are dumped.
1868: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 22'L by 16'B by
7'D. The vessel's displacement is 568 T and the specific
gravity of the mud is 1.6. What is the reduction in GM due
to 2 of these tanks being slack?
A: 0.56 foot
B: 0.96 foot
C: 1.18 feet
D: 1.43 feet
1869: The three corners of the main sail are called __________.
A: head, fore, and aft
B: luff, leech, and spar
C: headboard, foot, and tail
D: head, tack, and clew
1870: When should a fire be ventilated?
A: When attacking the fire directly
B: When using a steam smothering system
C: When using the fixed CO2 system
D: All of the above
1871: If the cause of a sudden severe list is negative initial
stability, counterflooding into empty tanks may _____.
A: increase the righting moment
B: cause an increase in the righting arm
C: bring the vessel to an upright equilibrium position
D: cause the vessel to flop to a greater angle
1872: Your vessel displaces 641 tons. The existing deck cargo
has a center of gravity of 3.6 feet above the deck and
weighs 36 tons. If you load 22 tons of ground tackle with
an estimated center of gravity of 2.0 feet above the deck,
what is the final height of the CG of the deck cargo?
A: 2.33 feet
B: 2.55 feet
C: 2.77 feet
D: 2.99 feet
1873: Offshore drilling units that are equipped with electric
powered lifeboat winches, require inspections of the
control apparatus, including motor controllers, and
switches, at least once every ______.
A: 3 months
B: 6 months
C: 12 months
D: 24 months
1874: Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated
by use of a ____________.
A: remote operated valve
B: C02 system pressure switch
C: fusible link
D: heat or smoke detector
1875: After abandoning ship which action should be taken
IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?
A: Open equipment pack.
B: Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
C: Cut painter and clear the ship.
D: Dry the liferaft floor and inflate.
1876: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 140² relative
would be ___________.
A: close hauled on the starboard tack
B: close hauled on the port tack
C: on a broad reach
D: running before the wind
1878: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 20'L by 18'B by
7'D. The vessel's displacement is 866 T and the specific
gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due
to 2 of these tanks being slack?
A: 0.24 foot
B: 0.56 foot
C: 0.95 foot
D: 1.12 feet
1879: Your vessel measures 127 feet long by 17 feet in beam. If
the natural rolling period at a draft of 7'-10" is 5
seconds, what is the GM?
A: 1.96 feet
B: 2.24 feet
C: 2.45 feet
D: 2.68 feet
1880: The primary reason for placing covers over storage batteries
is to __________.
A: prevent the accumulation of explosive gases
B: protect the hull from leaking electrolyte
C: prevent movement of the battery in rough waters
D: protect against accidental shorting across terminals
1882: A sailing vessel with the wind coming from 260ø relative
would be ____________.
A: on a close reach
B: on a broad reach
C: on a starboard tack
D: running before the wind
1883: On offshore drilling units, the station bill must be posted
in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.
A: company man
B: driller
C: owner
D: Master or person in charge
1884: INTERNATIONAL AND INLAND Unless the rules require otherwise,
a sailing vessel must keep out of the way of ______.
A: an overtaking vessel
B: a pilot vessel on station
C: another sailing vessel on a crossing course
D: a vessel trawling
1885: In the case of an injury causing a person to be
incapacitated, the Master or person in charge of a mobile
offshore drilling unit must submit a report to the ________.
A: nearest Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office
B: nearest hospital
C: Department of Energy
D: American Bureau of Shipping
1886: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 30'L by 15'B by
6'D. The vessel's displacement is 968 T and the specific
gravity of the mud is 1.8. What is the reduction in GM due
to 2 of these tanks being slack?
A: .19 foot
B: .42 foot
C: .64 foot
D: .87 foot
1887: When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the Coast
Guard __________.
A: one month before the anniversary date of the plan
B: six months before the end of the approval period
C: and cannot be implemented without approval
D: and can be implemented without immediate approval as long
asfinal approval is received within six months of submission
1888: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 18'L by 10'B by
6'D. The vessel's displacement is 944 T and the specific
gravity of the mud is 1.9. What is the reduction in GM due
to 2 of the tanks being slack?
A: .08 foot
B: .16 foot
C: .45 foot
D: .90 foot
1890: Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation
because ______.
A: ventilation avoids CO2 build up
B: ventilation supplies extra oxygen for charging the battery
C: ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation
D: less electrolyte is required to maintain the batteries'
charge
1894: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by
8'D. The vessel's displacement in salt water (specific
gravity 1.025) is 864 T and the specific gravity of the mud
is 1.47. What is the reduction in GM due to 2 of these
tanks being slack?
A: 0.32 foot
B: 0.78 foot
C: 0.96 foot
D: 1.12 feet
1896: The edge of the sail labeled "A" is called the ________.
A: leech
B: clew
C: luff
D: headboard
1897: Which is a part of a vessel's standing rigging?
A: Sheet
B: Backstay
C: Topping lift
D: Downhaul
1898: Your vessel displaces 585 tons and measures 128'L by 26'B.
What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish
hold (30'L by 18'B by 9'D) is filled with 2.8 feet of water?
(Each foot of water weighs 15.4 tons)
A: 0.66 foot
B: 1.12 feet
C: 1.37 feet
D: 1.58 feet
1899: Your vessel displaces 684 tons and measures 132'L by 31'B.
What is the reduction in GM due to free surface if the fish
hold (32'L by 29'B by 9'D) is filled with 2 feet of water?
(Each foot of water weighs 26.5 tons)
A: 2.17 feet
B: 2.32 feet
C: 2.52 feet
D: 3.01 feet
1900: The accumulation of dangerous fumes generated by the storage
batteries is best prevented by _____________.
A: covering the batteries in a nonconducting, solid enclosure
B: mounting the batteries in a position as high as possible
C: natural or mechanical ventilation
D: securing the batteries to vibration reducing mounting
brackets
1903: You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the
signal flag "W" hoisted. What should you do?
A: Proceed on present course and speed since the vessel is
stopped and making no way through the water.
B: Attempt to call the