USCG Safety Questions: Master's License
1: Your vessel is on an even keel. The MT1 of your vessel is
1000 ft-tons. How many tons of cargo must be loaded in
number 4 hold which is 100 feet abaft the tipping center, if
she is to have a 2 foot drag?
A: 90 tons
B: 100 tons
C: 130 tons
D: 240 tons
2: An airplane wants a vessel to change course and proceed
towards a vessel in distress. The actions of the aircraft
to convey this message will NOT include _______________.
A: circling the vessel at least once
B: heading in the direction of the distress location
C: flashing the navigation lights on and off
D: crossing ahead and rocking the wings
3: To turn over an inflatable life raft that is upside down,
you should pull on the _____________.
A: canopy
B: manropes
C: sea painter
D: righting strap
4: A green signal, floating in the air from a parachute, about
300 feet above the water, indicates that a submarine _____.
A: has fired a torpedo during a drill
B: will be coming to the surface
C: is on the bottom in distress
D: is in distress and will try to surface
5: Pollution of the waterways may result from the discharge of
_________.
A: sewage
B: the galley trash can
C: an oily mixture of one part per million
D: All of the above
6: Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire
extinguishing systems shall be kept on board __________.
A: for 1 year
B: for 2 years
C: until the next Coast Guard inspection
D: until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires
7: You have been carrying a liquid with flammable limits of 1%
to 7% mixture with air. If your instructions say that no
one shall enter the tank if the vapor concentration
is over 15% of the LEL, what is the maximum allowable
percentage of vapors for men to enter?
A: .15%
B: .85%
C: 1.05%
D: 7.00%
8: You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How
many chest compressions and how many inflations should you
administer in each sequence?
A: 5 compressions then 1 inflation
B: 15 compressions then 2 inflations
C: 20 compressions then 3 inflations
D: 30 compressions then 4 inflations
9: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at
Sea contain the requirements for ________________________.
A: signals that must be sounded when being towed in restricted
visibility
B: minimum hawser lengths when being towed
C: lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys
D: mooring procedures for support vessels when transferring
cargo
10: What is the definition of transverse metacenter?
A: The distance between the actual center of gravity and the
maximum center of gravity that will still allow a positive
stability.
B: The point to which G may rise and still permit the vessel to
possess positive stability.
C: The sum of the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity.
D: The transverse shift of the center of buoyancy as a vessel
rolls.
11: A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?
A: On their side if unconscious
B: Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head
C: Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level
D: Arms above their head
12: The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to
_____.
A: allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
B: prevent outside air from entering the tank
C: provide more discharge pressure
D: comply with pollution regulations
13: If your life raft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you
should FIRST _________________.
A: cut the line to the sea anchor
B: paddle away from the fire
C: splash water over the liferaft to cool it
D: get out of the raft and swim to safety
14: A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute,
about 300 feet above the water, would indicate that a
submarine ___________.
A: has fired a torpedo during a drill
B: is about to rise to periscope depth
C: is on the bottom in distress
D: is disabled and unable to surface
15: In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical
time during bunkering is when _______________.
A: you first start to receive fuel
B: hoses are being blown down
C: final topping off is occurring
D: hoses are being disconnected
17: The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is _____.
A: incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon
vapor content makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower
Flammable Level)
B: capable of supporting combustion
C: in a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur
naturally on a regular basis
D: incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon
vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper
Flammable Limit)
18: When administering mouth to mouth resuscitation to an adult,
you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per
minute?
19: The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the
radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least a
____________________.
A: mate's license
B: restricted radiotelephone operator permit
C: second-class radio operator's license
D: seaman's document
20: If the vertical center of gravity (VCG) of a ship rises 1.7
feet, the righting arm (GZ) for the various angles of
inclination will _____________________.
A: decrease
B: increase
C: remain unchanged
D: be changed by the amount of GG' x cosine of the angle
21: Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following
emergencies be covered at the periodic drills on a fishing
vessel EXCEPT ________.
A: minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding
B: fire on board
C: rescuing an individual from the water
D: emergency towing
22: An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to
_________.
A: aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
B: increase the rate of discharge of cargo
C: force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to
the outside atmosphere
D: lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion
nearly impossible
23: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an
inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon
functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should
you take?
A: Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft
container down.
B: Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as
it goes down.
C: Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft
to inflate and open the container.
D: Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with
the hand pump.
24: Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in
compliance with the International Rules of the Road?
25: You are on a 30,000 DWT tankship engaged in trade to another
country signatory to MARPOL 73/78. Which statement is TRUE?
A: The Certificate of Inspection is prima facie evidence of
compliance with MARPOL 73/78.
B: The IOPP Certificate is valid for 4 years.
C: An IOPP Certificate is invalid if the ship carries cargoes
outside the classes authorized thereon.
D: AN IOPP Certificate is renewed at each inspection for
certification.
26: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square
feet. What would fulfill the requirements for fire
protection?
A: One B-I extinguisher
B: One B-II extinguisher
C: One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
D: One B-V extinguisher
27: The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is _____.
A: incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon
content is below the LFL (Lower Flammable Limit)
B: capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon
content is above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)
C: capable of supporting a fire once started
D: not safe for ballasting
28: The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during
mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's
nostrils and _____________.
A: cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
B: keeping the head elevated
C: applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
D: holding the jaw down firmly
29: In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the
operator must FIRST __________.
A: invert the CO2 extinguisher
B: squeeze the two trigger handles together
C: remove the locking pin
D: open the discharge valve
30: Transverse stability calculations require the use of _____.
A: hog or sag calculations or tables
B: hydrostatic curves
C: general arrangement plans
D: cross-sectional views of the vessel
31: All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT
_________.
A: electricity
B: fuel
C: oxygen
D: heat
32: Every U.S. crude oil tankship with a keel laying date on or
after 1/1/75, shall be equipped with an inert gas system if
the tonnage is more than _______________.
A: 100,000 DWT (long tons)
B: 100,000 DWT (metric tons)
C: 50,000 DWT (long tons)
D: 50,000 DWT (metric tons)
33: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats
due to their ________.
A: shape
B: shallow draft
C: large sail area
D: All of the above
34: Which single-letter sound signal may only be made in
compliance with the Rules of the Road?
A: D
B: E
C: S
D: All of the above
35: Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
A: It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
B: It is not covered by the pollution laws.
C: It does little harm to marine life.
D: It will sink more rapidly than crude oil.
36: The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers
required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker
exit is ________.
A: one A-I
B: two A-IIs
C: one B-II
D: one C-II
37: What is the generally accepted method of determining whether
the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich,
or too lean to support combustion?
A: Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been
taken from the tank.
B: Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
C: Enter the tank with a teledyne oxygen analyzer.
D: Use an MSA, Davis, or equivalent explosimeter.
38: When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during
CPR, the sternum should be depressed about _____________.
A: 1/2 inch or less
B: 1/2 to 1 inch
C: 1 to 1-1/2 inches
D: 1-1/2 to 2 inches
39: A flame screen __________.
A: permits the passage of vapor but not of flame
B: prevents the passage of flammable vapors
C: prevents inert gas from leaving a tank
D: permits vapors to exit but not enter a tank
40: Regardless of local requirements/regulations, when in a
U.S. port, all oil spills must be reported to ___________.
A: Environmental Protection Agency
B: Minerals Management Service
C: National Response Center (USCG)
D: All of the Above
41: Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room
fire, you must __________.
A: secure the engine room ventilation
B: secure the machinery in the engine room
C: evacuate all engine room personnel
D: All of the above
42: Using an inert gas system on a tank vessel has which
advantage(s)?
A: Provides for faster loading
B: Lowers oxygen content in the tank
C: Provides better fuel economy
D: All of the above
43: If an inflatable life raft is overturned, it may be righted
by ________.
A: filling the stabilizers on one side with water
B: releasing the CO2 cylinder
C: pushing up from under one end
D: standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps
on the underside of the raft
44: The spread of fire is prevented by _____________.
A: heating surfaces adjacent to the fire
B: removing combustibles from the endangered area
C: increasing the oxygen supply
D: All of the above
45: Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?
A: They usually disappear quickly.
B: They usually stay in a small area.
C: They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be
cumulative.
D: A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the area.
46: The required number and type of hand portable fire
extinguishers to be carried in the vicinity of the radio
room exit for a tank vessel on an international voyage is
one ______.
A: B-I
B: B-II
C: C-I
D: C-II
47: What is used to test a tank for oxygen content?
A: Combustible gas indicator
B: Vapor indicator
C: Atmosphere analyzer kit
D: None of the above
48: You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where
on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
A: Lower half of the sternum
B: Tip of the sternum
C: Top half of the sternum
D: Left chest over the heart
49: You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the
engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.
A: use a portable foam extinguisher
B: use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
C: use a portable CO2 extinguisher
D: determine the cause of the fire
50: What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled
tanker?
A: Bending moments
B: Initial stability
C: Draft
D: Trim
51: On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required
part of the fireman's outfit?
A: Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached
B: Combustible gas indicator
C: Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves
D: Flame safety lamp
52: Which statement is TRUE concerning inert gas systems on tank
vessels?
A: Flue gases from the ship's boilers are used in some systems.
B: The gas is helium.
C: Using the system accelerates the rusting of the tanks.
D: All of the above
53: If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can
right it by _________________.
A: pushing up on one side
B: standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and
throwing your weight backwards
C: getting at least three or four men to push down on the side
containing the CO2 cylinder
D: doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy
supports inflate
54: On surface type offshore drilling units, each lifeboat and
life raft must be capable of being launched to the water at
the minimum operating draft when the unit has an adverse
trim up to ___________.
A: 20²
B: 15²
C: 10²
D: 5²
55: Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.
A: equipment failure
B: human error
C: major casualties
D: unforeseeable circumstances
56: The required number and type of hand portable fire
extinguishers for staterooms on cargo vessels is _________.
A: one A-I
B: one B-I
C: one C-I
D: none required
57: The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form
an explosive mixture is called the ______________.
A: auto-ignition point
B: flash point
C: lower explosive limit (LEL)
D: threshold limit value (TLV)
58: Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration
should be done _______________.
A: without losing the rhythm of respiration
B: only with the help of two other people
C: by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
D: at ten-minute intervals
59: Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each
self-contained breathing apparatus be carried?
A: Emergency gear locker
B: Bridge or pilothouse area
C: Where they can be readily found
D: The same location as the equipment it reactivates
60: Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates
that the vessel _____.
A: has offcenter weights
B: is taking on water
C: has a greater draft forward than aft
D: has poor stability
61: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge. The
barge is NOT gas free. Regulations say that the cargo tank
hatches, ullage holes, and Butterworth plates on the barge
may remain open without flame screens _______________.
A: without restriction
B: only while in areas of good weather
C: when under the supervision of a senior crew member on duty
D: only when the barge is empty
62: The deck water seal of the inert gas system ______________.
A: cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the
cargo tanks
B: acts as an emergency shutdown when inlet pressures exceed
the safe working pressure
C: prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into
nonhazardous areas
D: relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
63: You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that
has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming
from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of
this?
A: The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker
lights on the canopy.
B: The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the
tubes fully inflated.
C: A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of
CO2.
D: Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon
stop.
64: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the amount of liquid loading required in the
double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 338 tons
B: 309 tons
C: 281 tons
D: 263 tons
65: The most serious effect of trapped air in a diesel engine
jacket water cooling system is that it ________________.
A: accelerates errosion
B: reduces the effectiveness of chromate additives
C: can form pockets of high chemical concentrates
D: accelerates formation of sludge deposits
66: The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,900 square
feet. What will fulfill the requirements for fire
protection?
A: One B-I extinguisher
B: One B-II extinguisher
C: One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
D: One B-V extinguisher
67: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is
________.
A: 0% to 1%
B: 1% to 10%
C: 10% to 15%
D: 12% to 20%
68: The MOST important element in administering CPR is ________.
A: having the proper equipment for the process
B: starting the treatment quickly
C: administering of oxygen
D: treating for traumatic shock
69: Fire hose couplings _________________.
A: are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
B: should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths
C: are specially hardened to prevent crushing
D: should be greased frequently
70: What represents the center of gravity?
71: Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with
_____________.
A: the name of the vessel on which it is located
B: the date that it was installed
C: the names of the individuals qualified to use it
D: an identification number
72: To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above
the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.
A: pull the hook release handle
B: pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
C: use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer
D: pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer
73: A life raft which has inflated bottom-up on the water
___________.
A: should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide
cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards
B: should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the
righting straps, and leaning backwards
C: will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate
D: must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will
right itself
74: Outlets in gasoline fuel lines are ______________.
A: prohibited
B: permitted for draining fuel from lines
C: permitted for drawing fuel samples
D: permitted for bleeding air from lines
75: If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival
craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the
hook release?
A: Immediately upon launching
B: One to three feet before first wave contact
C: Upon first wave contact
D: Only when waterborne
76: The required number and type of hand portable fire
extinguishers required for a galley having an area of 3,500
square feet is ____________.
A: one B-II
B: one C-II
C: two B-II's or C-II's
D: two A-II's or B-II's
77: Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is ______________.
A: 16%
B: 18%
C: 21%
D: 25%
78: Before CPR is started, you should _____________.
A: establish an open airway
B: treat any bleeding wounds
C: insure the victim is conscious
D: make the victim comfortable
79: A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire
extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be
_________.
A: labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
B: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more
than 25%
C: replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
D: replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more
than 15%
80: What represents the metacentric height?
81: Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as
a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition
temperature?
A: CO2
B: Water stream
C: Water spray
D: Foam
82: You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable
dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed
__________.
A: to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
B: at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
C: over the top of the fire
D: at the main body of the fire
83: If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk,
you should ________.
A: go in a different direction in search of land
B: spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft
finding you
C: reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as
possible into as few rafts as possible
D: tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
84: After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be _____.
A: put back in service if some C02 remains
B: hydrostatically tested
C: retagged
D: recharged
85: To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should ____.
A: shut off all electrical power
B: remove combustibles from direct exposure
C: cool the bulkhead around the fire
D: close all openings to the area
86: On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are
no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply
with regulations, you _____________________.
A: need not be concerned since no portable extinguishers are
required in the pumproom
B: should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the
vicinity of the exit
C: should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the
lower pumproom
D: may substitute sand for the required extinguishers
87: Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a
compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free?
A: A three-cell flashlight
B: An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp
C: A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp
D: None of the above
88: You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you
blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting
into the lungs. What should you do?
A: Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
B: Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.
C: Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow
out any obstruction.
D: Re-tip the head and try again.
89: To determine what navigation lights and dayshapes must be
displayed on mobile offshore drilling units under tow,
you should check the _____.
A: American Bureau of Shipping classification rules
B: International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea
C: Safety of Life at Sea Convention
D: Minerals Management Service rules
90: Refer to illustration D001SA. Which represents the righting
arm?
A: GM
B: GZ
C: BM
D: Angle MGZ
91: Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a
shipboard fire by ____________.
A: removing the fuel
B: interrupting the chain reaction
C: removing the oxygen
D: removing the heat
92: The liquid mud tanks on your vessel measure 24'L by 16'B by
8'D. The vessel's displacement in fresh water is 864 tons
and the specific gravity of the mud is 1.47. What is the
reduction in GM due to 2 of these tanks being slack?
A: .32 foot
B: .80 foot
C: .96 foot
D: 1.12 feet
93: If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while
far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should
________.
A: separate from each other as this will increase the chances
of being rescued
B: get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to
the vessel
C: immediately head for the nearest land
D: remain together in the area because rescuers will start
searching at the vessel's last known position
94: If you desired to communicate with another station that your
navigation lights were not functioning, you would send
_______________.
A: PB
B: PD1
C: MJ
D: LN1
95: A spark arrestor _____.
A: keeps sparks from falling into an open tank
B: secures covers on ullage openings
C: prevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust
system
D: grounds static electricity
96: A B-III foam extinguisher contains ___________________.
A: 2-1/2 gallons of foam
B: 8 gallons of foam
C: 10 gallons of foam
D: 12 gallons of foam
97: The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a
compartment which is not gas free is a lamp that is
___________________.
A: battery fed
B: self-contained
C: approved explosion proof
D: All of the above
98: Two people are administering CPR to a victim. How many
times per minute should the chest be compressed?
99: Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to
the discharge into the marine environment of ______________.
A: oil
B: garbage
C: noxious liquid substances
D: None of the above
100: When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between
the line of force through B and the line of force through G
is called the _____.
A: metacentric height
B: righting arm
C: righting moment
D: metacentric radius
101: On a vessel of 10,000 tons displacement, compute the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water on the tank top. The hold is 40 feet
long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric height
is ___________________.
A: 1.1 feet
B: 1.2 feet
C: 1.3 feet
D: 1.5 feet
102: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part
of your vessel. If possible, you should __________________.
A: put the vessel's stern into the wind
B: abandon ship to windward
C: call for assistance
D: keep going at half speed
103: You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the
raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise
coming from a safety valve. You should _____.
A: not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of
time
B: plug the safety valve
C: unscrew the deflation plugs
D: remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
104: In the International Code of Signals, the code signal
meaning "I require immediate assistance" is _________.
105: The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at
Sea contain the requirements for ____________________.
A: lights that must be displayed on anchor buoys
B: the display of load line markings
C: minimum horsepower for tugs involved in rig moves
D: lighting of mobile offshore drilling units being towed
106: A B-II fire extinguisher has a minimum capacity of ________.
A: 3 gallons of foam
B: 20 pounds of CO2
C: 10 pounds of dry chemical
D: All of the above
107: What best describes for how long a gas-free test is good?
A: For as long as is indicated on the gas-free certificate
B: For the instant that it is made
C: Until valves in line with the tank or compartment are
reopened
D: Until changes in temperature or pressure affect the vapor
content in the space
108: Antiseptics are used principally to ___________.
A: speed healing
B: prevent infection
C: reduce inflammation
D: increase blood circulation
109: Your vessel has a displacement of 10,000 tons. It is 350
feet long and has a beam of 55 feet. You have timed it's
full rolling period to be 15.0 seconds. What is your
vessel's approximate GM?
A: 1.18 feet
B: 1.83 feet
C: 2.60 feet
D: 3.36 feet
110: A vertical shift of weight to a position above the vessel's
center of gravity will ___________________.
A: increase reserve buoyancy
B: decrease the righting moments
C: decrease KG
D: increase KM
111: In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be
closed to prevent the spread of fire by ___________.
A: convection
B: conduction
C: radiation
D: ventilation
112: Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas.
You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by ____________.
A: rigging a sea anchor
B: constantly shifting the rudder
C: moving all personnel forward and low
D: moving all personnel aft
113: You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has
inflated. You should _____.
A: quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
B: check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas
are rough
C: check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the
initial opening
D: not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to
escape
114: If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code
should you send?
116: What is classified as a B-II fire extinguisher?
A: A 2-1/2 gallon soda acid and water
B: A 1-1/4 gallon foam
C: A 2-1/2 gallon foam
D: A 20 pound dry chemical
117: Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample
into the instrument ______________________________.
A: over an electrically heated platinum filament
B: where it is mixed with nitrogen
C: where it is ignited by a sparking device
D: where its specific gravity is measured
118: A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY _____.
A: with puncture wounds
B: when all other means have failed
C: when the victim is unconscious
D: to prevent bleeding from minor wounds
119: What would be considered a vessel under the International
Rules of the Road?
A: A jack-up rig under tow
B: A semisubmersible drilling rig under tow
C: A semisubmersible drilling rig drifting after breaking
a tow line
D: All of the above
120: The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may
rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability
is called the ___________.
A: metacentric point
B: metacenter
C: metacentric radius
D: tipping center
121: Your vessel has a displacement of 24,500 tons. It is 529
feet long and has a beam of 71 feet. You have timed your
full charge rolling period to be 25.0 seconds. What is your
vessel's approximate GM?
A: 1.25 feet
B: 1.56 feet
C: 1.98 feet
D: 2.43 feet
122: A negative metacentric height _____________.
A: will always cause a vessel to capsize
B: should always be immediately corrected
C: always results from off-center weights
D: All of the above are correct
123: If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should
________.
A: remain in the immediate vicinity
B: head for the nearest land
C: head for the closest sea-lanes
D: vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the
decision
124: You wish to communicate information that the swell in
your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast.
This swell, as defined in the code, would be described as
____________.
A: rough
B: moderate
C: high
D: confused
125: Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS _____.
A: reduce reserve buoyancy
B: increase righting moments
C: increase GM
D: All of the above
126: Which portable fire extinguisher is classified as a type
B-III extinguisher?
A: 12 gallon soda acid
B: 20 gallon foam
C: 30 pound carbon dioxide
D: 20 pound dry chemical
127: Before welding in a tank that has carried petroleum
products, the tank must be certified by ___________________.
A: the Coast Guard
B: the American Bureau of Shipping
C: the shipyard fire department
D: a certified marine chemist
128: A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that
is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an
alternative to suturing to close the wound?
A: Wrap a tight bandage around the wound.
B: Apply a compression bandage.
C: Use temporary stitches of sail twine.
D: Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing.
129: A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with
____________.
A: a righting line
B: red hand flares
C: pendants
D: drinking water
130: When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships,
the vessel will heel outwards if __________________________.
A: the vessel has very little draft
B: G is above the center of lateral resistance
C: G is below the center of lateral resistance
D: the vessel is deeply laden
131: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 16 feet. At this
draft, the displacement is 8,000 tons. The length of the
vessel is 475 ft., beam is 55 ft., TPI is 45. Calculate KM.
(See P-value, K-value table in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book)
A: 18.8 feet
B: 20.9 feet
C: 22.7 feet
D: 32.0 feet
132: The most serious effect of air trapped in a diesel engine
jacket water cooling system is that it ______________.
A: causes colloid suspension in the cooling water
B: reduces the capability of the lubrication system
C: can form pockets which block the flow of coolant through
the system
D: leads to the scuffing of cylinder walls
133: You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft.
How much water per day should you permit each occupant
to drink after the first 24 hours?
A: 1 can
B: 1 pint
C: 1 quart
D: 1 gallon
134: What is the International Code signal for a decimal point
between figures using flashing light?
A: AAA
B: TTTT
C: EEEEE
D: AS
135: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the
navigable waters of the U.S. is FALSE?
A: The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast
Guard.
B: Failure to report the spill may result in a fine.
C: The company can be fined for the spill.
D: The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean up of
the spill.
136: Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's
name?
A: Hand-portable fire extinguisher
B: Life preserver
C: Fire hose
D: Lifeboat oar
137: The officer responsible for the sanitary condition of the
engineering department is the ____________________.
A: Master
B: Chief Mate
C: Chief Engineer
D: First Assistant
138: A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb.
To remove it you should _____.
A: pull it out with pliers
B: cut the skin from around the hook
C: push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook
D: have a surgeon remove it
139: When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team
should crouch as low as possible to __________.
A: protect themselves from smoke
B: obtain the best available air
C: allow the heat and steam to pass overhead
D: All of the above
140: Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
A: She will have a large metacentric height.
B: Her period of roll will be large due to her large
metacentric height.
C: She will have an unusually high center of gravity.
D: She will pitch heavily.
141: Which emergency is required to be covered at the required
periodic drills on a fishing vessel?
A: Recovering an individual from the water
B: Steering casualty
C: Emergency towing
D: Loss of propulsion power
142: You are in the Baltic Sea which is a special area listed in
ANNEX V of MARPOL. How many miles from land must you be to
discharge ground rags, glass, and bottles into the sea?
A: 3
B: 12
C: 25
D: Must be retained aboard
143: You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which
procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a
raft?
A: Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.
B: Get plenty of rest.
C: Keep the entrance curtains open.
D: All of the above
144: The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is _____.
A: one and one-half times the length of a dot
B: twice the length of a dot
C: three times the length of a dot
D: four times the length of a dot
145: Which statement concerning an accidental oil spill in the
navigable waters of the U.S. is TRUE?
A: The Corps of Engineers is responsible for the clean up of
the spill.
B: The Department of Interior is responsible for the clean up
of the spill.
C: A warning broadcast must be made by radiotelephone.
D: The person in charge must report the spill to the Coast
Guard.
146: A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing.
You must _____.
A: administer oxygen
B: immediately check his pulse and start CPR
C: make the victim comfortable in a bunk
D: immediately give a stimulant, by force if necesssary
147: Your vessel is on a voyage of three months duration. The
number of sanitary inspections required is _______.
A: one
B: three
C: six
D: twelve
148: First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to
_____.
A: lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding
stops
B: stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
C: apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the
bleeding stops
D: apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and
cover it
149: A signal indicating zone time is preceded with the letter
________.
150: A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of
the cargo is _________________________.
A: evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are
full
B: concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty
C: concentrated low and the double bottoms are full
D: concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
151: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 1.50 feet
B: 1.96 feet
C: 2.21 feet
D: 2.78 feet
152: What is the function of the bypass valve on the
self-contained breathing apparatus?
A: The valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in
the bottle and prevent the bottle from exploding.
B: In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve
can be operated manually to give the wearer air.
C: When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above
atmospheric pressure, the valve opens to release pressure.
D: The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3
psi above atmospheric pressure.
153: If you reach shore in a life raft, the first thing to do is
_________.
A: drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
B: find some wood for a fire
C: get the provisions out of the raft
D: set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it
154: The standard rate of signalling by flashing light is ______.
A: twenty letters per minute
B: thirty letters per minute
C: forty letters per minute
D: fifty letters per minute
155: When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what
should you do after reporting the discharge?
A: Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from
the water.
B: Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil.
C: Throw sand on the water to sink the oil.
D: Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers
156: The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted
on a "T-Boat" by applying the __________.
A: "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space
along the vessel's sides and transom for each passenger
B: "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every
10 square feet of deck space available for passenger use
C: "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space
for each passenger to rest his/her buttocks upon
D: Any or a combination of the above criteria
157: On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters
are the responsibility of the _______________________.
A: Master and Second Mate
B: Master and Chief Engineer
C: Master and union delegate
D: Master and Chief Mate
158: A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe
bleeding has been controlled by using a sterile dressing and
direct pressure. What should you do next?
A: Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting.
B: Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing.
C: Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic.
D: Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost
blood.
159: The class A EPIRB transmits a signal ____________.
A: that follows the curvature of the earth
B: that can be picked up by SARSAT satellite
C: that activates an alarm on board nearby aircraft
D: to alert shore stations and then transmits a homing signal
160: A vessel is tender if cargo weight is ___________.
A: concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
B: concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
C: evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
D: concentrated and with the double bottoms full
161: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 2.15 feet
B: 1.83 feet
C: 1.64 feet
D: 1.19 feet
162: The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained
breathing apparatus is to ____________.
A: control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body
B: allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
C: release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle
to explode
D: allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle
163: You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high
latitutes, the greatest danger is _____.
A: asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
B: hypothermia caused by cold temperature
C: collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
D: starvation
164: You have called another vessel by flashing light and he has
answered your call properly. You now send your call sign
"DE KLIS". He should respond with _____.
A: TTTT
B: his own call letters
C: DE KLIS
D: R
165: Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire
extinguishing agent?
A: It is more effective than CO2.
B: It leaves no residue.
C: It is noncorrosive.
D: It is always non-toxic.
166: On cargo vessels, which fire extinguisher is considered
semi-portable?
A: A-II
B: C-II
C: B-III
D: All of the above
167: One method of controlling rats on vessels is by
rat-proofing. Rat-proofing is accomplished by _____________.
A: installing rat guards on the mooring lines when in port
B: keeping foods protected and avoiding the accumulation of
garbage
C: eliminating possible living spaces for rats when the ship is
constructed
D: trapping and/or poisoning the rats
168: In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound
should be controlled by ___________.
A: applying direct pressure to the wound
B: submerging the wound in lukewarm water
C: cooling the wound with ice
D: applying a tourniquet
169: The signal T 0735 means _____.
A: The Greenwich mean time is 0735
B: The zone time is 0735
C: The latitude is 7ø 35'
D: The longitude is 7ø 35'
170: In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when
carrying a cargo of lumber, you should ____________________.
A: maximize your deck load
B: distribute lumber so that those stowing most compactly per
unit of weight are in the upper holds
C: place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
D: keep the vessel's frame spaces free from lumber
171: You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part
of your vessel. If possible you should ____________________.
A: call for assistance
B: abandon ship to windward
C: put the vessel's stern into the wind
D: keep going at half speed
172: As Master of an inspected small passenger vessel, you have a
question regarding a proposed modification to a watertight
bulkhead. In which subchapter of title 46 of the Code of
Federal Regulations would you find the answer?
A: Subchapter B
B: Subchapter S
C: Subchapter T
D: Subchapter F
173: While adrift in an inflatable life raft in hot, tropical
weather _____.
A: the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block
cooling breezes
B: the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent
excessive air pressure
C: deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
D: the entrance curtains should never be opened
174: If you sent out a signal on 12 March 1980, the date would be
indicated by ____________.
A: D120380
B: D801203
C: D031280
D: D800312
175: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T, a stability test may be
dispensed with if the __________.
A: Coast Guard has the approved stability test results of a
sister vessel
B: projected cost is unreasonable
C: Coast Guard does not have a qualified inspector available
D: vessel is of a proven design
176: On tank vessels, fully charged fire extinguishers are
considered semi-portable when they have a gross weight of
more than _______________.
A: 55 pounds
B: 75 pounds
C: 95 pounds
D: 125 pounds
177: Before taking drinking water on board in the U.S. or its
possessions, the responsible person from the vessel should
determine that the source _____________.
A: is used by a city
B: has been treated with chlorine
C: is approved by the Public Health Service
D: is not from surface water
178: Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by ______.
A: applying direct pressure to the wound
B: heavy application of a disinfectant
C: pouring ice water directly onto the wound
D: pinching the wound closed
179: A vessel is floating at a mean draft of 14 feet. At this
draft, the displacement is 6000 tons. The length of the
vessel is 450 feet, beam is 50 feet, and the TPI is 45.
What is the KM? (See the P-K table in the blue pages of the
Stability Data Reference Book)
A: 19.5 feet
B: 21.4 feet
C: 23.7 feet
D: 25.2 feet
180: Which is TRUE of a "stiff" vessel?
A: It has a small GM.
B: It pitches heavily.
C: It has an unusually high center of gravity.
D: Its period of roll is short.
181: Gas masks __________.
A: should be worn while fighting a fire
B: can be used in atmospheres deficient in oxygen
C: filter contaminants from air that is to be breathed
D: may be substituted for a self-contained breathing apparatus
182: Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance
between the forward-most and the after-most points on a
vessel's waterline?
A: LWL
B: LOA
C: LOD
D: LLL
183: Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable life raft?
A: The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water.
B: Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it.
C: The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated.
D: All of the above
184: When signalling by flashing light, the signal "C" should be
used to indicate a(n) _____.
A: affirmative statement
B: question
C: change from affirmative to negative
D: request for the identity signal of the receiving stations
185: Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the
pollution prevention regulations?
A: Petroleum and fuel oil
B: Sludge
C: Oil mixed with dredge spoil
D: Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes
186: Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and
figures such as "Fire Station No. 1", "2", "3", etc. The
height of the letters and figures must be at least ________.
A: 1/2 inch
B: 1 inch
C: 1-1/2 inches
D: 2 inches
187: What represents poor sanitary procedures?
A: Keep and use a separate filling hose for potable (drinking)
water.
B: Locate potable (drinking) water tanks as low as possible in
the bilge.
C: Eliminate enclosed spaces in which trash, food particles,
dirt may gather.
D: After washing dishes with soap and warm water, sterilize
them in water of at least 170ø F (76.7ø C).
188: The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by
_______.
A: direct pressure on the wound
B: elevating the wounded area
C: pressure on a pressure point
D: a tourniquet above the wound
189: The purpose of the inclining experiment is to ________.
A: determine the location of the metacenter
B: determine the lightweight center of gravity location
C: verify the hydrostatic data
D: verify data in the vessel's operating manual
190: Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable
roll to a stiff vessel?
A: Concentrate weights in the upper tween-deck wings
B: Add weight near the centerline of the lower hold
C: Move weights lower in the ship
D: Ballast the peak tanks
191: Where will you find the requirements for the lights that
must be displayed on a mobile offshore drilling unit that is
being towed?
A: Notice to Mariners
B: COLREGS
C: Coast Pilot
D: Light List
192: When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should
__________.
A: use different fire hose pressures
B: use fire hoses of different sizes
C: not attack the fire from opposite sides
D: not wear protective clothing
193: Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with which of
the following?
A: Tanks for the storage of drinking water
B: Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing
C: A hydraulic start diesel engine
D: Auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear)
194: Which signal given by flashing light changes a
statement into a question?
195: As soon as the officer in charge of the vessel has taken
steps to stop the discharge of oil or oily mixture into a
U.S. harbor, what must he do FIRST?
A: Rig a boom for recovery.
B: Call the Coast Guard.
C: Alert the fire department.
D: Inform the Environmental Protection Agency.
196: The term "gross tonnage" refers to ___________.
A: the weight of the vessel measured in long tons
B: the weight of a vesel with all tanks full
C: the weight of a grossly overloaded vessel
D: the vessel's approximate volume including all enclosed
spaces less certain exempt spaces
197: Normally, potable water systems are connected directly to
the ______.
A: fire-main system
B: feed-water system
C: freshwater sanitary system
D: domestic water tank
198: A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal
injuries should __________.
A: be assisted in walking around
B: be examined then walked to a bunk
C: not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance
arrives
D: not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a
chair or bunk
199: You are on a supply run to an offshore drilling rig. On
board is the cargo listed. What is the height above the
main deck of the center of gravity of the cargo?
A: 3.6 feet
B: 4.2 feet
C: 4.4 feet
D: 4.9 feet
200: Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
A: It has a large GM.
B: Its period of roll is long.
C: It has a very low center of gravity.
D: It has a good transverse stability.
201: Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats.
Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in
flames?
A: The ventilators will automatically close by the action of
fusible links.
B: The motor takes its air supply from outside the lifeboat to
prevent asphyxiation of the crew.
C: A water spray system to cool the outside of the boat is
operated by a high-volume manual pump.
D: An air tank will provide about ten minutes of air for the
survivors and the engine.
202: The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must
be __________.
A: made of steel or bronze wire rope
B: corrosion resistant
C: not less than 50 feet in length
D: All of the above
203: The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be _________.
A: forwardmost on the port side
B: forwardmost on the starboard side
C: abaft #1 lifeboat port side
D: abaft #1 lifeboat starboard side
204: When signalling by flashing light, a correctly received
repetition of a signal is acknowledged by the signal _____.
205: When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be
held responsible?
A: Master only
B: Owners only
C: Licensed officers only
D: Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the
operation
206: Oceangoing dry bulk cargo vessels over 1000 GT must have
approved combination-type fire nozzles at all _____________.
A: fire stations aboard the vessel, except for those in open
deck areas that serve only cargo holds
B: interior fire stations
C: fire stations near a space with flammable liquids
D: engine room fire stations
207: Which chemical is used to treat water in order to ensure its
safety for drinking?
A: Nitrogen
B: Chlorine
C: Carbon
D: Oxygen
208: What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first
aid?
A: Control bleeding
B: Reduce pain
C: Immobilize a fracture
D: Reset the bone
209: The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found _________.
A: on the port side
B: on the starboard side
C: abaft #1 lifeboat on the port side
D: abaft #1 lifeboat on the starboard side
210: Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability
_______________.
A: for all angles of inclination
B: for large angles of inclination
C: for small angles of inclination
D: in no case
211: The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures
the __________.
A: amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space
B: amount of combustible gas as a percentage of the lower
explosive limit in a confined space
C: concentration of CO2 as a percentage of oxygen in a confined
space
D: None of the above
212: In the navigable waters of the United States, Annex V to
MARPOL 73/78 is NOT applicable to a(n) _____________.
A: recreational yacht
B: uninspected towing vessel
C: uninspected passenger vessel under 100 GT
D: U.S. government vessel in non-commercial service
213: Most lifeboats are equipped with ___________________.
A: unbalanced rudders
B: balanced rudders
C: contraguide rudders
D: straight rudders
214: In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters
will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the
transmission back to the sender?
A: REPEAT
B: RPT
C: RPB
D: UD AA
216: What is the total number of approved low-velocity spray
("water-fog") applicators required aboard a tankship?
217: Which item do you NOT have to provide for the Coast
Guard representative at the time of a stability test?
A: A stability letter.
B: Tank sounding tables and draft mark locations.
C: Capacity plans showing the vertical and longitudinal
centers of gravity of stowage spaces and tanks.
D: General arrangement plans of decks; holds and inner bottoms.
218: A compound fracture is a fracture in which _______________.
A: more than one bone is broken
B: the same bone is broken in more than one place
C: there is never any internal bleeding
D: the bone may be visible
219: For the purposes of the International Rules of the Road, a
non-self-propelled mobile offshore drilling unit under tow
is considered to be a ______________________.
A: non-displacement vessel
B: limited vessel
C: power-driven vessel
D: vessel
220: Metacentric height is a measure of _______________________.
A: initial stability only
B: stability through all angles
C: maximum righting arm
D: All of the above
221: Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
A: It increases in direct proportion to the length of the tank
times the breadth squared.
B: It decreases at increased angles of heel due to pocketing
when a tank is 90% full.
C: It decreases in direct proportion to increasing specific
gravity of the liquid in the tank.
D: In practice, the correction is considered to be a virtual
reduction of KG.
222: On surface type offshore drilling units, each lifeboat and
life raft must be capable of being launched to the water at
the minimum operating draft when the unit has an adverse
list up to _________.
A: 20²
B: 15²
C: 10²
D: 5²
223: The steering oar in a lifeboat is ____________.
A: shorter than the others
B: used for the stroke oar
C: used by the forward man in the boat to direct the bow
D: longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern
224: If there is a possibility of confusion, which signal should
be used to send the group "TRUE BEARING 045 DEGREES"?
A: 045
B: B045
C: B045T
D: A045
225: The Federal Water Pollution Control Act requires the person
in charge of a vessel to immediately notify the Coast Guard
as soon as he knows of any oil discharge. Failure to
notify the Coast Guard can lead to a fine of
________________.
A: $500 or 30 days in jail, or both
B: $1,000 or 60 days in jail, or both
C: $10,000 or 1 year in jail, or both
D: $50,000 or 5 years in jail, or both
226: How many low-velocity spray applicators are required on the
weather decks of a tankship?
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: Four
227: The Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon on a cargo
vessel must be stowed ____________________.
A: in an inside passageway
B: in an approved bracket
C: so that it is accessible from the bridge of the vessel
D: so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
228: Which is the most serious type of fracture?
A: Compound
B: Greenstick
C: Closed
D: Crack
229: Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will
stop ________.
A: oil from flowing out of the tank vent
B: air from entering the tank vent
C: vapors from leaving the tank vent
D: flames on deck from entering the tank vent
230: Initial stability of a vessel may be improved by __________.
A: removing loose water
B: adding weight low in the vessel
C: closing crossover valves between partly filled double
bottom tanks
D: All of the above
231: The Coast Guard inspection required before a Certificate of
Ispection can be issued is conducted________________.
A: when deemed necessary by the Regional Inspection Center
B: after you apply in writing to the nearest Officer in Charge
of Marine Inspection(OCMI)
C: at random from a Coast Guard patrol boat
D: after a formal complaint is filed with the OCMI
232: You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered
a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs
of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: Four
233: Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after
capsizing IF the ___________________.
A: lower ballast tanks are filled with water
B: fuel tanks are not less than half full
C: passengers are strapped to their seats
D: sea anchor is deployed to windward
234: What is the meaning of the flashing light signal "D0910"?
A: Date September 10
B: Date October 9
C: Distance 910 miles
D: Longitude 9ø10'
235: If you fail to notify the Coast Guard of an oil spill, you
may be fined up to ________________.
A: $500
B: $1,000
C: $5,000
D: $10,000
236: What is the maximum number of sleeping accommodations a
barge may have before it is required to have fire pumps,
hydrants, hose, and nozzles installed?
237: Where must a Class A EPIRB be stowed?
A: Under lock and key
B: Where it can float free
C: In the engine room
D: In the pilothouse
238: Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a
compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is
controlled and ____.
A: the bone has been set
B: the fracture is immobilized
C: radio advice has been obtained
D: the wound has been washed
239: Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
A: It is added to GM at light drafts and subtracted at deep
drafts.
B: It is increased if the slack tank is not on the centerline.
C: It is decreased if the slack tank is below the KG of the
vessel.
D: The correction decreases as the draft increases due to
loading dry cargo.
240: According to 46 CFR Subchapter T the definition of a ferry
includes vessels that ________.
A: operate in other than ocean or coastwise service
B: have provisions only for deck passengers, vehicles, or both
C: operate on a short run on a frequent schedule between two
points over the most direct water route
D: All of the above
241: The signal L1210 means the ______.
A: latitude is 12ø10'
B: longitude is 12ø10'
C: GMT is 1210
D: zone time is 1210
242: You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing
apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs
of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
A: One
B: Two
C: Three
D: Four
243: Which statement concerning storm oil is CORRECT?
A: It has a moderate effect in surf.
B: It is most effective in shallow water.
C: It reduces friction between wind and water.
D: Mineral oil is the most effective type.
244: A vessel is flying the signal "BJ-1" from her starboard
halyard. The signal means "_____."
A: an aircraft is ditched in position indicated
B: the aircraft is still afloat
C: there is no danger of explosion
D: an aircraft is circling over an accident
245: Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated
area because __________.
A: they generate heat
B: they emit hydrogen
C: of the toxic fumes they emit
D: they recharge faster in a well ventilated space
246: On a vessel of 125,000 GT on an international voyage, how
many international shore connections must be provided?
247: During a stability test on a small passenger vessel ______.
A: the vessel must be moored snugly
B: each tank must be partially full to show it does not leak
C: all dunnage, tools, and extraneous items are secured
D: water under vessel must be deep enough to prevent grounding
248: You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the
lower arm. Which action should you take?
A: Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones
and splint.
B: Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line,
splint, and apply a pressure dressing.
C: Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the
bleeding, and splint.
D: Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control
bleeding, then apply a temporary splint, and place the
victim in bed.
249: Large quantities of gas in the shale shaker area may be an
indication of ____________.
A: a break in the riser system
B: low formation pressure
C: a break in the drill string
D: high formation pressure
250: Which will be a result of removing on-deck containers?
A: KG will increase
B: Metacentric height will increase
C: KB will increase
D: Reserve buoyancy will decrease
251: Free communication effect is in direct proportion to _____.
A: length and width of space
B: length of space only
C: width of space only
D: neither length nor width
252: What, when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a
fire?
A: Nitrogen
B: Sodium
C: Oxygen
D: Carbon dioxide
253: In order to benefit from the use of storm oil in heavy seas,
the storm oil should be spread _____________.
A: around the rudder and screws
B: completely around the vessel
C: to leeward of the vessel
D: to windward of the vessel
254: If you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if he had a doctor on
board, you would hoist the flag signal _____________.
A: AM
B: AL
C: AN 1
D: MA
255: You are towing a 1000 gross ton gasoline tank barge.
Regulations say that cargo tank hatches, ullage holes, and
Butterworth plates may remain open without flame screens
ONLY ______________.
A: if the barge is towed on a hawser astern
B: if an approved type B-II fire extinguisher is provided
C: when the open tanks are gas free
D: for periods not to exceed five minutes
256: What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo
vessel of 2,000 GT?
257: Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an
EPIRB.
A: A sailing vessel
B: A fishing vessel
C: A non self-propelled vessel
D: A towing vessel
258: In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the
treatment for the injury and ______________.
A: application of CPR
B: removal of any foreign objects
C: administration of oxygen
D: for traumatic shock
259: What does NOT affect the value of the free surface
correction?
A: Width of the tank
B: Length of the tank
C: Registered tonnage
D: Specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
260: A 12-foot, 2-1/2 inch, low-velocity fog applicator is
designed to produce a minimum fog pattern diameter of _____.
A: 65 feet
B: 25 feet
C: 22 feet
D: 8 feet
261: A person who willfully violates safety regulations may be
fined up to $(SA)5,000 and ___________.
A: imprisoned for up to a year
B: imprisoned for up to five years
C: forbidden to work in the fishing industry
D: no other penalty may be applied
262: Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat
rise in a compartment?
A: Manual fire detection system
B: Automatic fire detection system
C: Smoke detection system
D: Watchman's supervisory system
263: Which oil is not suitable for use as storm oil?
A: Fish oil
B: Vegetable oil
C: Mineral oil
D: Animal oil
264: While using the International Code of Signals, if the
receiving station can distinguish the flag signal of the
transmitting station, but cannot understand the meaning of
it, the station can hoist the flag signal ____.
265: The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution
regulations, means _____________________.
A: spilling
B: leaking
C: dumping
D: All of the above
266: What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo
vessel of 900 GT?
267: Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
A: Class A
B: Class B
C: Class C
D: Catergory I
268: What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?
A: Keep the patient warm but not hot.
B: Have the injured person lie down.
C: Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation.
D: Relieve the pain of the injury.
269: To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant,
secure the valve and ______________.
A: replace the gasket in the male coupling
B: reduce fire pump pressure
C: replace the gasket in the female coupling
D: rethread the male coupling
270: When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck
the ___________.
A: center of gravity will move upwards
B: GM will increase
C: center of buoyancy will move downward
D: All of the above
271: A fishing vessel casualty must be reported to the Coast
Guard if it involves _______________.
A: loss of life
B: an injury requiring only first aid
C: $(SA)10,000 in property damage
D: loss of equipment which doesn't reduce the vessel's
maneuverability
272: Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________.
A: smoke sensors
B: the difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar
metals
C: pressure loss due to air being heated
D: an electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with
the beam
273: Which type of oil is best for use as storm oil?
A: Fish oil
B: Crude oil
C: Lube oil
D: Mineral oil
274: The flag hoist 62.2 would be sent as pennant 6, pennant 2,
________.
A: answering pennant, first substitute
B: answering pennant, second substitute
C: space, second substitute
D: answering pennant, third substitute
275: When cleaning up an oil spill in U.S. waters you must
obtain the approval of the Federal On-Scene Coordinator
before using ___________.
A: skimmers
B: straw
C: chemical agents
D: sawdust
276: For a cargo vessel of 1,000 GT or over, on an international
voyage, the required minimum pitot tube pressure from the
two highest outlets when two fire pumps are operating
simultaneously is approximately _______.
A: 35 psi
B: 50 psi
C: 70 psi
D: 100 psi
277: The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon
(EPIRB) must be tested _______________.
A: weekly
B: monthly
C: every 2 months
D: every 3 months
278: What is a treatment for traumatic shock?
A: Administer CPR.
B: Administer fluids.
C: Open clothing to allow cooling of the body.
D: Keep the victim in a sitting position.
279: The purpose of storm oil in a sea anchor is to ____________.
A: weigh down the anchor
B: lubricate the anchor
C: repel dangerous fish
D: smooth the sea
280: In the regulations that apply to small passenger vessels an
"open boat" is a vessel ____________________.
A: that is used for charter fishing or tours and is open to
the public
B: on which gambling and consumption of alcoholic beverages is
permitted
C: that is docked and open for visitors
D: that is not protected from entry of water by means of a
complete weathertight deck
281: The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed
CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs
110 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross weight of the
CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the
manufacturer?
A: 200 lbs
B: 205 lbs
C: 210 lbs
D: 220 lbs
282: The difference in water spray pattern between the
high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the
all-purpose nozzle is due to _________.
A: a difference in water pressure
B: the method of breaking up the water stream
C: the length of the applicator
D: All of the above
283: Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of ___________.
A: diminishing the height of the seas
B: lengthening the distance between successive crests
C: increasing the height of the seas
D: preventing the wave crests from breaking
284: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist
G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute.
A: G421G
B: G4214
C: G421G421
D: G4211
285: The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for
removal of surface oil is __________.
A: the most common method used in the United States
B: too expensive for common use
C: generally safe to sea life
D: authorized only with prior approval of the Federal On-Scene
Coordinator
286: On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of
carbon dioxide into any "tight" space shall be completed
within ___________.
A: 1 minute
B: 2 minutes
C: 4 minutes
D: 6 minutes
287: The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position
Indicating Radiobeacon (EPIRB) is _______________________.
A: secured inside the wheelhouse
B: tested annually
C: tested monthly
D: secured in the emergency locker
288: A negative metacentric height ______________.
A: will always cause a vessel to capsize
B: always results from off-center weights
C: should always be immediately corrected
D: All of the above are correct
289: You are at the helm of a sailing vessel under sail on the
starboard tack, close hauled, and you are instructed to
"head up". You should ___________________.
A: turn the wheel to port if you are steering with a wheel
B: push the tiller to starboard if you are steering with a
tiller
C: turn the rudder to starboard
D: All of the above are correct
290: What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck
into the lower hold of a vessel?
A: The GM will increase.
B: The metacenter will move upward.
C: The center of buoyancy will move upward.
D: All of the above
291: A Certificate of Inspection issued to a small passenger
vessel describes ____________.
A: the mimimum fire extinguishing equipment, lifejackets,
survival and rescue craft she must carry
B: the name of the managing operator
C: any special conditions or restrictions on her operation
D: All the above
292: High-velocity fog _________________.
A: is a finer, more diffuse water spray than low-velocity fog
B: requires that the water pressure be no greater than 60 psi
C: produces an effective fog pattern no more than 6 feet beyond
the nozzle
D: extinguishes a fire by absorbing heat and reducing the
supply of oxygen
293: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are
severely damaged?
A: They should be replaced.
B: They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in
use.
C: They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress.
D: They can be used for children.
294: If a receiving station cannot distinguish a signal sent by
flag hoist it should _______________.
A: hoist ZQ
B: hoist ZL
C: keep the answering pennant at the dip
D: raise and lower the answering pennant
295: The most common type of containment device(s) for spilled
oil on the water is(are) ____________________.
A: straw
B: booms
C: skimmers
D: chemical dispersants
296: In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight
loss exceeds _____________________.
A: 10% of weight of full bottle
B: 15% of weight of full bottle
C: 20% of weight of charge
D: 10% of weight of charge
297: Which information is NOT required to be posted in or near
the wheelhouse?
A: Stopping time and distance from full speed while maintaining
course with minimum rudder
B: A diagram of advance and transfer for turns of 30ø, 60ø, 90ø
and 120ø at full speed with maximum rudder and constant
power
C: For vessels with a fixed propeller, a table of shaft RPMs
for a representative range of speeds
D: Operating instructions for change-over procedures for remote
steering gear systems
298: Which is NOT a symptom of traumatic shock?
A: Slow, deep breathing
B: Pale, cold skin
C: Weak, rapid pulse
D: Restlessness and anxiety
299: Which of the following statements relating to AMVER
(Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel Rescue) is TRUE?
A: An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render
assistance to a vessel in distress than a non-participant.
B: There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent
within the AMVER system.
C: An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to
give 24 hour advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before
entering a U.S. port from offshore.
D: The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels
responding to calls for assistance.
300: In the small passenger vessel regulations a coastwise route
is defined as one that is __________.
A: not more than 50 statute miles from shore in the
Gulf of Mexico
B: on ocean waters more than 200 nautical miles from
shore in the Gulf of Alaska
C: not more than 20 statute miles from the nearest safe
harbor in the Pacific Ocean
D: not more than 20 nautical miles offshore in the any ocean
301: Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the
free surface correction?
A: The width of the tank
B: The length of the tank
C: The draft of the vessel
D: The specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
302: If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your
vessel, which action is most important concerning the
stability of the vessel?
A: Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
B: Pumping fire-fighting water overboard
C: Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
D: Removing burned debris from the cargo hold
303: Plastic material may be thrown overboard from a vessel which
is _______________________.
A: 25 miles from shore
B: 12 miles from shore
C: 3 miles from shore
D: None of the above are correct.
304: What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist
F 2 1 3 second substitute?
A: F2131
B: F2132
C: F213213
D: F213F213
305: Which method of oil cleanup is usually NOT allowed?
A: Employing a boom
B: Using suction equipment
C: Chemical agents
D: Skimmers
306: In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not
be used for any other purpose EXCEPT _________.
A: in connection with the fire-detecting system
B: in connection with the water sprinkler system
C: to ventilate the space
D: to run the emergency wiring to the space
307: Your ship is returning to New Orleans from a foreign voyage
and carrying a bulk cargo of anhydrous ammonia. You must
notify the Captain of the Port, New Orleans, ______________.
A: at least 24 hours before entering port
B: if you are not participating in the USMER system
C: only if you have a hazardous condition aboard
D: only if your arrival will vary more than six hours from your
ETA reported to AMVER
308: A person being treated for shock should be wrapped in warm
coverings to _______________.
A: increase body heat
B: preserve body heat
C: avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic movement
D: protect the person from injury during transportation
309: Life jackets should be marked with the ________________.
A: maximum weight allowed
B: stowage space assigned
C: vessel's home port
D: vessel's name
310: A vessel's light draft displacement is 7400 tons. The
center of gravity at this draft is 21.5 ft. above the keel.
The following weights are loaded: (WT. #1-450 tons, VCG
#1-17.4 ft.; WT. #2-220 tons, VCG #2-11.6 ft.; WT. #3-65
tons, VCG #3-7.0 ft.). The new CG above the keel is ______.
A: 14.7 feet
B: 17.8 feet
C: 18.7 feet
D: 20.9 feet
311: Spontaneous ignition can result from __________________.
A: an unprotected drop-light bulb
B: careless disposal or storage of material
C: smoking in bed
D: worn electrical wires on power tools
312: The spray of water in low-velocity fog will have ________.
A: greater range than high-velocity fog
B: lesser range than high-velocity fog
C: about the same range as high-velocity fog
D: greater range than a solid stream
313: Kapok life jackets should NOT be _________.
A: stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted
B: used as seats, pillows, or foot rests
C: left on open decks
D: All of the above
314: The flag hoist 1.33 would be sent as _____.
A: 1, answer pennant, 3, first substitute
B: 1, answer pennant, 3, second substitute
C: 1, answer pennant, 3, third substitute
D: N, 1, answer pennant, 3
315: The maximum number of passengers a "T"-Boat may carry ____.
A: is stated on the vessel's Certificate of Inspection
B: is the number authorized in the Navigation Rules
C: depends on the number of lifejackets you carry
D: is the number authorized by your license
316: The space containing the cylinders for the carbon
dioxide(C02) fire extinguishing system must be designed to
preclude an anticipated ambient temperature over _______.
A: 80ø F
B: 95ø F
C: 130ø F
D: 150ø F
317: Your vessel will be entering the navigable waters of the
United States. You are required by regulations to ______.
A: test the primary and secondary steering systems no more than
8 hours before entering
B: correct the charts of the area to be transited using the
Notice(s) to Mariners or foreign equivalent reasonably
available
C: have a copy of Radio Navigational Aids
D: check the magnetic compass for the correct deviation
318: The best treatment for preventing traumatic shock after an
accident is to ___________.
A: have the victim exercise to increase circulation
B: keep the victim from electrical equipment
C: keep the victim warm and dry while lying down
D: apply ice packs and avoid excitement
319: Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?
A: A
B: B
C: A and B
D: B and C
320: As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental
effect of free surface ________________.
A: increases
B: decreases
C: remains the same
D: may increase or decrease depending on the fineness of the
vessel's form
321: A signal indicating Greenwich mean time would be preceded
with ______.
A: a code hoist to indicate Greenwich mean time to follow
B: the letter G
C: the letters GT
D: the letter Z
322: A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing
agent is its characteristic of _______________.
A: alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid
state becomes a vapor
B: absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a
liquid to a vapor
C: rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a
vapor
D: rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
323: You must make a written application to obtain or renew your
"T-Boat's" Certificate of Inspection _____________.
A: on form CG-835
B: at the shipyard where you are hauled out
C: on form CG-3752
D: everytime your boat is hauled out
324: The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is
channel _____.
325: For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed
container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line
must hold a minimum of ___.
A: three barrels
B: four barrels
C: six barrels
D: eight barrels
326: CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they
are stored must _______________.
A: NOT contain more than 200 pounds of CO2
B: be automatically operated by a heat actuator
C: have an audible alarm
D: All of the above
327: The maneuvering information required to be posted in the
wheelhouse must be based on certain conditions. Which of the
following is NOT one of these conditions?
A: The hull must be clean.
B: There must be calm weather-wind 10 knots or less and a calm
sea.
C: There must be no current.
D: The depth of the water must be at least one and one-half
times the draft.
328: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive
damage to the skin with charring present. How is this
injury classified using standard medical terminology?
A: Dermal burn
B: Third-degree burn
C: Major burn
D: Lethal burn
329: Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
A: It has the same affect on initial stability whether the tank
is 75% full or 25% full.
B: The free surface effect usually increases at angles of heel
above 25ø.
C: The effect increases if the tank is off the centerline.
D: The effect can be reduced by shifting weights vertically.
330: Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also
have a dump tank located under the flume tanks. In the
event the ship is damaged, you could dump the flume tanks
into the dump tank which would _______.
A: reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG
B: not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG
C: reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG
D: not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG
331: One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is
that foam ______________.
A: cannot be made with salt water
B: is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface
C: is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters
D: conducts electricity
332: When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the
possibility of a blow back must be guarded against. Blow
back is most likely to occur when _________________.
A: pressure builds up in the nozzle which causes a surge of
water
B: the only opening in a passageway is the one from which the
nozzle is being advanced
C: pressure in the fire hose drops below 100 psi
D: a bulkhead collapses due to heat and pressure
333: Which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets?
A: Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.
B: Life preservers are designed to turn an unconscious person's
face clear of the water.
C: Life preservers must always be worn with the same side
facing outwards to float properly.
D: Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the
water and should not be used.
334: When are the best times to send the radiotelegraph
auto-alarm distress signal?
A: From 15 to 18 minutes past the hour and 45 to 48 minutes
past the hour
B: From on the hour to 3 minutes past the hour and 30 to 33
minutes past the hour
C: From 18 to 45 minutes past the hour and from 48 minutes past
the hour to the hour
D: From 3 to 30 minutes past the hour and 33 minutes past the
hour to the hour
335: Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels of oil for discharge.
The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches.
The container around each loading manifold must hold ______.
A: three barrels
B: four barrels
C: six barrels
D: eight barrels
336: Carbon dioxide cylinders which protect machinery spaces,
paint lockers and tanks may be located within those spaces
when the amount of carbon dioxide does not exceed _________.
A: 150 lbs
B: 300 lbs
C: 450 lbs
D: 600 lbs
337: You are sailing the navigable waters of the United States.
You must have a currently corrected copy (or extract) of
the _____.
A: List of Lights
B: Tide Tables
C: Sailing Directions
D: Pollution prevention regulations
338: A man has a burn on his arm. There is reddening of the
skin, blistering, and swelling. Using standard medical
terminology this is a ______________.
A: major burn
B: secondary burn
C: second-degree burn
D: blister burn
339: If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you
would ________________.
A: order the engine room to reduce pressure on the fire pump
B: put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way
forward
C: attach a low-velocity fog applicator with the nozzle shut
down
D: put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way back
340: Which statement about the free surface correction is
TRUE?
A: It is added to the uncorrected GM to arrive at the corrected
available GM.
B: It is obtained by dividing the free surface moments by 12
times the volume of displacement.
C: It is obtained by dividing the total free surface by
the total vertical moments.
D: It is subtracted from the total longitudinal moments before
dividing by displacement to find LCG.
341: The Master or other vessel representative must contact the
nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety Office within five days of
a(n) _________.
A: grounding
B: injury which requires first aid
C: accident which requires $(SA)2500 of repairs
D: All of the above are correct.
342: Every injury aboard a commercial fishing industry vessel
must be reported to the __________.
A: Coast Guard
B: vessel owner or owner's agent
C: Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D: National Fisheries Service
343: An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using _____.
A: a boat bucket
B: an air tank filled with water
C: an oar and canvas weighted down
D: All of the above
344: The signal that actuates the radio auto-alarms on a vessel
is a series of _____________________.
A: 6 dashes sent in one minute
B: 6 dashes sent in two minutes
C: 12 dashes sent in one minute
D: 12 dashes sent in two minutes
345: A 150-GT vessel (built in 1960) is loading diesel fuel. What
is the minimum capacity of the drip pans required for
placement under or around each fuel tank vent, overflow, and
fill pipe?
A: 1 gallon
B: 5 gallons
C: 1 barrel
D: 2 barrels
346: The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed extinguishing
system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient for
___________________.
A: all the spaces of a vessel
B: all cargo spaces
C: the engine room and largest cargo space
D: the space requiring the largest amount
347: The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with
the nozzle open is ______________.
A: the hose could burst
B: the nozzle end will whip about causing damage or injury
C: water damage to vessel's cargo or structure
D: personnel might trip over the hose
348: A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening
of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard
MEDICAL terminology, this is a ____________________.
A: Minor burn
B: Superficial burn
C: Extremity burn
D: First-degree burn
349: A marine radar system for surface navigation must be fitted
on all ocean or coastwise vessels of over _______.
A: 1,400 GT
B: 1,500 GT
C: 1,600 GT
D: 1,700 GT
350: The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result
of liquids ____________.
A: flowing from side to side within the vessel
B: flowing from fore to aft within a vessel
C: flowing in and out of a holed wing tank
D: pocketing in a slack tank as a vessel heels
351: What is the meaning of the signal "G1325"?
A: The GMT is 1325.
B: The latitude is 13ø25'.
C: The zone time is 1325.
D: The longitude is 13ø25'.
352: What is an advantage of water fog over a straight stream of
water in fighting an oil fire?
A: It has a smothering effect on the fire.
B: It removes combustible vapors from the air.
C: It gives more protection to fire fighting personnel.
D: All of the above
353: When a sea anchor is used in landing in a heavy surf,
headway is checked by _________________.
A: slacking the tripping line and towing the apex end forward
B: slacking the tripping line and towing the mouth forward by
the holding line
C: towing with the tripping line and the holding line slack
D: towing the apex end forward with the tripping line
354: The distress message of a ship should include considerable
information which might facilitate the rescue. This
information should ________________.
A: ALWAYS be included in the initial distress message
B: be sent to a Coast Guard station FIRST
C: be transmitted as a series of short messages, if time
allows
D: include the vessel's draft
355: The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the
waterplane _____________.
A: about which the vessel lists and trims
B: which coincides with the center of buoyancy
C: which, in the absence of external forces, is always
vertically aligned with the center of gravity
D: which is shown in the hydrostatic tables as VCB
356: The number of pounds of carbon dioxide required for each
cargo space on a cargo vessel is equal to _____________.
A: the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 100
B: one pound of CO2 per cubic foot of space
C: one pound of CO2 per square foot of deck area
D: the gross volume of the space in cubic feet divided by 30
357: The operator of a vessel's radiotelephone must hold at least
a ___________________.
A: third class radiotelegraph operator certificate
B: restricted radiotelephone operator permit
C: general radiotelephone operator license
D: mates license
358: When treating a person for third-degree burns, you should
___________.
A: submerge the burn area in cold water
B: make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation
C: cover the burns with thick, sterile dressings
D: break blisters and remove dead tissue
359: A vessel is floating in saltwater at a mean draft of 14
feet. The length of the vessel is 450 feet, beam 50 feet,
TPI 45. The BM is 16.34 feet. What is the vessel's
displacement in tons?
A: 4,500 tons P .70 K .042
B: 6,000 tons P .75 K .048
C: 7,560 tons P .80 K .055
D: 7,900 tons P .85 K .062
360: The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids
flowing _________.
A: from side to side in the tanks of the vessel
B: from fore to aft in the tanks of a vessel
C: in and out of a vessel that is holed in a wing tank
D: in and out of a vessel that is holed in a peak tank
361: What can be used to measure the percentage of oxygen inside
a chain locker?
A: Flame safety lamp
B: Combustible gas indicator
C: Oxygen indicator
D: H2S meter
362: Water fog from an all-purpose nozzle may be used to _______.
A: fight an electrical fire
B: fight a magnesium fire
C: eliminate smoke from a compartment
D: All of the above
363: You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in
the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you
should _______.
A: take no action, broaching is recommended in a heavy sea
B: put out the sea anchor
C: put out the sea painter
D: fill the bottom of the boat with about one foot of
water to make it ride better
364: What is the international distress frequency for
radiotelegraph?
A: 156.8 mHz
B: 2182 kHz
C: 500 kHz
D: 300 kHz
365: What is the minimum fuel-oil discharge-containment needed
for a 150 gross ton vessel constructed on January 7, 1976?
A: At least 5 gallons
B: At least 1 barrel
C: At least 2 barrels
D: At least 3 barrels
366: You have determined that a cargo space on a freight vessel
is 45 feet by 36 feet by 62 feet. How many pounds of carbon
dioxide is required for this space?
A: 1674
B: 2511
C: 3348
D: 5022
367: A ship's radiotelephone station license is issued by the
________.
A: U.S. Coast Guard
B: Federal Communications Commission
C: Radio Technical Commission for Marine Services
D: Maritime Mobile Service Commission
368: The FIRST concern in treating a person with extensive burns
is _____.
A: reducing disfigurement
B: preventing infection
C: treating for shock
D: reducing swelling
369: A cargo vessel of 9,000 tons displacement is carrying a
slack deep tank of molasses (SG 1.4). The tank measures 20
feet long and 30 feet wide. What will be the reduction in
metacentric height due to free surface, with the vessel
floating in sea water (SG 1.026)?
A: .142 ft.
B: .177 ft.
C: .195 ft.
D: .212 ft.
370: What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full
tank onboard a vessel?
A: Corrosion from the shifting liquid
B: Rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid
C: Loss of stability from free surface effect
D: Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting
liquid
371: On a vessel of 12,500 tons displacement, compute the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 35
feet long and 50 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric
height is ___________.
A: .14 ft
B: .45 ft
C: .55 ft
D: .83 ft
372: The SS AMERICAN MARINER is loaded with the cargo shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the amount of liquid loading required in the
double bottom tanks to meet a one compartment standard.
A: 189 tons
B: 174 tons
C: 158 tons
D: No loading required
373: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You
can reduce the possibility of capsizing by _______________.
A: shifting the rudder constantly
B: moving all personnel forward and low
C: moving all personnel aft
D: rigging a sea anchor
374: A vessel operating outside of coastal waters must carry an
automatically activated Emergency Position Indicating Radio
Beacon (EPIRB) if she __________.
A: does not have berthing facilities
B: has berthing and galley facilities
C: is a workboat and her mothership carries an EPIRB
D: None of the above are correct.
375: Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans
and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of
the waste oil?
A: Draining it overboard when the vessel gets underway
B: Placing it in proper disposal facilities
C: Adding sinking agents and discharging it into the water
D: Mixing it with dispersants before draining it overboard
376: Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall be set
with _____________________.
A: the master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo
tanks shut
B: the master control valve open and valves to individual cargo
tanks shut
C: the master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo
tanks open
D: all valves open
377: The regulations governing the frequencies of the
bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone are issued by the ________.
A: Department of Transportation
B: Federal Communications Commission
C: U.S. Coast Guard
D: Department of Defense
378: The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to _____________.
A: wash the burned area with a warm soap and water solution
B: flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold water
C: cover the burned area with talcum powder and bandag it
cover the burned area with talcum powder and bandage it
tightly
D: leave the burned area exposed to the atmosphere
379: Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a vessel
if it is _____________________.
A: 3 miles from shore
B: 12 miles from shore
C: 25 miles from shore
D: Nowhere while afloat
380: You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel.
Which action is most important concerning the stability of
the vessel?
A: Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
B: Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard
C: Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
D: Removing burned debris from the cargo hold
381: What is the meaning of the signal "G0325"?
A: The distance is 325 miles.
B: The longitude is 3ø25'.
C: The course is 325ø.
D: Change course to 325ø.
382: A damaged "T-Boat" that is unable to meet the requirements
of its Certificate of Inspection but is able to travel to a
shipyard under its own power should ____________.
A: make the trip only after obtaining a "Permit to Proceed to
Another Port for Repair", Form CG-948
B: get underway as soon as possible
C: hire a tug and pilot instead
D: request an Expiration Certificate if the vessel displays a
tendency to sink
383: The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to ____.
A: aid in casting off
B: direct the drift of the vessel
C: aid in its recovery
D: maintain maximum resistance to broaching
384: The radiotelegraphy groups indicating distress,
urgency, and safety, respectively are _____________.
A: SOS, ZZZ, XXX
B: SOS, UUU, SSS
C: SOS, XXX, TTT
D: SOS, TTT, UUU
385: If you are operating a non-ocean going 200 GT vessel,
how much of the accumulated oily waste must you be able
to retain on board?
A: 25%
B: 50%
C: 75%
D: 100%
386: On vessels subject to 46 CFR Subchapter T, Certification
Expiration Date Stickers ___________.
A: are issued along with a valid Certificate of
Inspection(COI) to indicate the date the COI expires
B: must be readily visible to each passenger prior to boarding
and to patrolling Coast Guard law enforcement personnel
C: must be placed on glass or other smooth surfaces where they
may be removed without damage to the vessel
D: All of the above
387: If your vessel is equipped with a radiotelephone, what must
also be aboard?
A: Certificate of Inspection
B: List of ship stations
C: Copy of ship to shore channels
D: Radio station license
388: A victim has suffered a second-degree burn to a small area
of the lower arm. What is the proper treatment for this
injury?
A: Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn
ointment, and bandage.
B: Open any blisters with a sterile needle, apply burn ointment
and bandage.
C: Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material and insure
that nothing is in contact with the burn.
D: Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any
blister and apply burn ointment.
389: On a vessel of 9,000 tons displacement, compute the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water on the tank tops. The hold is 20
feet long and 30 feet wide. The reduction in metacentric
height is __________.
A: .09 feet
B: .12 feet
C: .14 feet
D: .16 feet
390: A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of
a vessel when it is _____________________.
A: low in the vessel
B: completely empty
C: completely full
D: slack
391: Foam is a very effective smothering agent and _____________.
A: it provides cooling as a secondary effect
B: works well on extinguishing electrical fires
C: can be used to combat combustible metal fires
D: All of the above
392: What should be used to remove corrosion from the swivel on
the female coupling of a fire hose?
A: Bearing grease and a wire brush
B: Talc and fine sandpaper
C: Fish oil and a soft brush
D: Fresh water, soap, and a stiff brush
393: A sea anchor is _____________________.
A: a heavy anchor with an extra long line used to anchor in
deep water
B: a cone shaped bag used to slow down the wind drift effect
C: a padeye to which the sea painter is made fast
D: made of wood if it is of an approved type
394: If you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone
you should _____________.
A: use English language
B: always use the International Code
C: preface it by the word "interco"
D: follow the transmission with the radio alarm signal
395: You are operating a 1,000 GT non-ocean going tankship.
It must be equipped with _________________.
A: two pumps for discharging oily bilge slops
B: a fixed piping system for bilge slops with one outlet on
each side of the weather deck
C: a means on the weather deck to stop each pump used to
discharge oily waste
D: None of the above
396: Deck foam systems, designed to protect cargo areas on tank
vessels built after January 1, 1975, must have a supply of
foam-producing material to operate the system at its
designed rate of foam production for _________________.
A: 15 minutes without recharging
B: 20 minutes without recharging
C: 25 minutes without recharging
D: 30 minutes without recharging
397: The Departure Report, required by vessels participating in
AMVER, must be sent ___________.
A: as soon as practicable on leaving port
B: prior to departure
C: within 24 hours of departure
D: within 12 hours of departure
398: For small, first-degree burns the quickest method to relieve
pain is to __________.
A: immerse the burn in cold water
B: administer aspirin
C: apply petroleum jelly
D: apply a bandage to exclude air
399: What is the minimum number of people required to safely
handle a 2-1/2 inch fire hose?
400: Whenever a "T-Boat" is hauled out for repairs or
alterations affecting its safety you must ______________.
A: provide a complete set of plans to the Commandant
for review
B: notify the cognizant OCMI
C: schedule a full safety equipment inspection
D: Both B and C
401: On a vessel of 12,000 tons displacement, what is the
reduction in metacentric height due to free surface when a
tank 60 feet long and 60 feet wide is partially filled with
water?
A: 2.30 feet
B: 2.43 feet
C: 2.48 feet
D: 2.57 feet
402: To lubricate the swivel or remove corrosion from a fire hose
coupling, you should use _________________.
A: glycerine
B: graphite
C: kerosene
D: fresh water and soap
403: Due to the shape of the sea anchor, the best way to haul it
back aboard is by _________________.
A: hauling in on the anchor line as you would any anchor
B: getting all hands to assist
C: its trip line
D: cutting the line, as you cannot haul it back in
404: The radiotelegraph alarm signal is ______________.
A: SOS sent three times
B: ten one-second dashes with a four-second interval between
them
C: twelve four-second dashes with a one-second interval between
them
D: twelve one-second dashes with a short interval between them
405: A vessel in ocean service that does not have an approved
means of processing oily bilge slops or oily ballast must
have ________.
A: a fixed piping system for ballast discharge to a reception
facility
B: a discharge outlet for the ballast system on each side of
the weather deck
C: one portable adapter for a shore connection to the ballast
line
D: All of the above
406: A SOLAS passenger ship safety certificate is
required on all _____________________.
A: T-Boats carrying more than 49 passengers for hire
B: T-Boats that carry more than 12 passengers on an
international voyage
C: T-Boats carrying more than 150 passengers for hire
D: large excursion vessels on lakes, bays, sounds, and
river routes
407: Any person maintaining a listening watch on a
bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone must be able to ___________.
A: speak English
B: repair the unit
C: send Morse Code
D: speak a language the vessel's crew will understand
408: If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should
first remove him from the electrical source and then ______.
A: administer ammonia smelling salts
B: check for serious burns on the body
C: determine if he is breathing
D: massage vigorously to restore circulation
409: What is the reduction in metacentric height due to free
surface when a tank 60 feet long and 30 feet wide is
partially filled with salt water, and is fitted with a
centerline bulkhead? (The vessel has a displacement of
10,000 tons.)
A: 0.1 foot
B: 0.8 foot
C: 1.0 foot
D: 1.2 feet
410: The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon
______.
A: the amount of liquid in the compartment
B: the dimensions of the liquid surface and the vessel's
displacement
C: only the length of the compartment
D: the vertical position of the liquid in the vessel
411: Under Annex V to MARPOL 73/78, garbage discharged from
vessels that are located between 3 and 12 nautical miles
from nearest land must be ground to less than ________.
A: 1"
B: 1-1/4"
C: 1-1/2"
D: 2"
412: To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you
would _______.
A: attach the bronze nozzle tip to the fog outlet of the
nozzle
B: attach an applicator to the nozzle in place of the bronze
nozzle tip
C: attach an applicator to the solid stream outlet on the
nozzle
D: simply move the handle to the vertical position on the
nozzle
413: Paint and oil lockers on small passenger vessels
must be constructed of or lined with ___________.
A: steel or equivalent material
B: fiberglass
C: sheetrock, asbestos, or other material that retards the
spread of fire
D: marine plywood
414: A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two
tone alarm signal followed immediately by the ___________.
A: distress position
B: spoken words "Mayday, Mayday, Mayday"
C: ship's name
D: ship's call letters
415: What must ocean going vessels of 100 GT be fitted with for
oily mixtures?
A: A fixed system to discharge the slops overboard
B: A fixed system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception
facility
C: A portable system to discharge the slops overboard
D: A portable system to discharge oily mixtures to a reception
facility
416: Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is
TRUE concerning fireman's outfits?
A: If a vessel carries two outfits, they may be stored in the
same location.
B: Each fireman's outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of
an approved type.
C: Each fireman's outfit shall contain a fresh-air breathing
apparatus.
D: All of the above
417: By regulation, you MUST keep a record of the use of your
radiotelephone for at least __________.
A: one month
B: four months
C: six months
D: one year
418: Treatments of heat exhaustion consist of _____.
A: moving to a shaded area and laying down
B: bathing with rubbing alcohol
C: placing the patient in a tub of cold water
D: All of the above
419: The SS AMERICAN MARINER will sail with the load shown. Use
the white pages of The Stability Data Reference Book to
determine the drafts.
A: FWD 23'-03", AFT 27'-00"
B: FWD 23'-07", AFT 26'-07"
C: FWD 24'-01", AFT 26'-02"
D: FWD 24'-06", AFT 25'-10"
420: The most important figure in calculating the free surface
constant of a tank carrying liquids is _______________.
A: depth
B: length
C: displacement
D: breadth
421: After the initial AMVER Position Report, sent by a vessel
sailing foreign, subsequent Position Reports must be sent no
less frequently than every ______________.
A: 24 hours
B: 36 hours
C: 48 hours
D: Monday, Wednesday, and Friday
422: The all-purpose nozzle will produce a fog spray when you
__________.
A: pull the nozzle handle all the way back toward the operator
B: pull the nozzle handle back to a position where the handle
is perpendicular to the plane of the nozzle
C: push the nozzle handle forward as far as it will go
D: insert a fog applicator between the fire hose and nozzle
423: When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the
holding line is _____________.
A: long enough to cause the pull to be more horizontal than
downward
B: long enough to reach bottom
C: short enough to cause the pull to be downward
D: short enough to avoid tangling
424: What would be used to call all stations in your vicinity by
radiotelephone?
A: Calling all stations
B: Charlie Quebec
C: Alpha Alpha
D: Kilo
425: If you must pump bilges while a vessel is in port, you
should pump only ____________.
A: if discharge is led to a shore tank or barge
B: during the hours of darkness
C: on the outgoing tide
D: as much as is necessary
426: A 2,000 GT tankship is required to carry _______________.
A: emergency outfits only on an international voyage
B: one oxygen breathing apparatus with enough lifeline to reach
from the open deck to any part of the tanks
C: two self-contained breathing apparati
D: two canister type gas masks if such vessel is authorized to
carry grade A, B, C or D liquids
427: Radio station logs involving communications during a
disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least
____________.
A: 4 years from date of entry
B: 3 years from date of entry
C: 2 years from date of entry
D: 1 year from date of entry
428: Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen
into cold water would _____.
A: be the best thing to try if there was no rescue in sight
B: increase survival time in the water
C: increase the rate of heat loss from the body
D: not affect the heat loss from the body
429: You are at sea and not in a special area as defined in ANNEX
V of MARPOL. How many nautical miles from land must you be
to discharge ground garbage that will pass through a
one-inch (25 mm) screen into the sea?
A: 3 nm
B: 6 nm
C: 12 nm
D: 25 nm
430: The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability
do NOT depend upon the __________________.
A: volume of displacement of the vessel
B: dimensions of the surface of the liquid
C: amount of liquid in slack tanks
D: specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
431: The SS AMERICAN MARINER arrived in port with drafts of: FWD
28'-04", AFT 31'-10". Cargo was loaded and discharged as
shown. Use sheet 2 in the white pages of The Stability Data
Reference Book to determine the final drafts.
A: FWD 29'-01", AFT 31'-04"
B: FWD 29'-05", AFT 31'-00"
C: FWD 29'-08", AFT 30'-09"
D: FWD 29'-11", AFT 30'-07"
432: One advantage of the "all-purpose nozzle" is that it ______.
A: can fit any size hose
B: converts a stream of water into a fog
C: increases the amount of water reaching the fire
D: can spray two streams of water at the same time
433: If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is
carried out, they should _____________________.
A: take part
B: watch
C: go to their quarters
D: stay out of the way and do what they want
434: You are underway in the Gulf of Mexico when you hear a
distress message over the VHF radio. The position of the
sender is about 20 miles south of Galveston, TX, and you are
about 80 miles ESE of Galveston. What action should you
take?
A: Immediately acknowledge receipt of the distress message
B: Defer acknowledgment for a short interval so that a coast
station may acknowledge receipt
C: Do not acknowledge receipt until other ships nearer to the
distress have acknowledged
D: Do not acknowledge receipt because you are too far away to
take action
435: If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency
shutdown on a tank vessel, it must ___________________.
A: stop the flow of oil at the main deck manifold
B: prevent the oil from leaving the shore facility
C: prevent the oil from siphoning through the pump
D: None of the above
436: Which item is NOT included in the fireman's outfit on a
cargo vessel?
A: Fire ax
B: Flashlight
C: rigid helmet
D: Fresh air breathing apparatus
437: On small passenger vessels bunks installed in overnight
passenger accommodation spaces _____________.
A: must be no less than 74" long and 24" wide with 24" of
clear space above
B: must not be located more than 3 high, fitted with a suitable
aid to access bunks more than 5' above deck
with suitable aids to access bunks more than 5' above deck
C: must be immediately adjacent to an aisle leading to a means
of escape
D: All of the above
438: A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both
feet. You should _____.
A: immerse the feet in warm water
B: warm the feet with a heat lamp
C: warm the feet at room temperature
D: rub the feet
439: Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or
_______.
A: the paint locker
B: spaces open to the atmosphere
C: cargo holds
D: the engine room
440: You are making a heavy lift with the jumbo boom. Your
vessel displaces 8390 T. The 40 ton weight is on the pier
and its center is 55' to starboard of the centerline. The
head of the boom is 110' above the base line and the center
of gravity of the lift when stowed on deck will be 45' above
the base line. As the jumbo boom takes the strain the ship
lists to 3.5². What is the GM with the cargo stowed?
A: 4.58 feet
B: 4.27 feet
C: 3.93 feet
D: 3.68 feet
441: Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You
can reduce the possibility of capsizing by ________________.
A: moving all personnel aft
B: constantly shifting the rudder
C: rigging a sea anchor
D: moving all personnel forward and low
442: On the all-purpose nozzle, the position of the valve when
the handle is all the way forward is _____________.
A: shut
B: fog
C: solid stream
D: spray
443: What does "EPIRB" stand for?
A: Emergency Position Indicating Radar Buoy
B: Electronic Pulse Indicating Radiobeacon
C: Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon
D: None of the above
444: A call between any two ship stations on an intership working
frequency shall have a maximum duration of _______________.
A: 2 minutes
B: 3 minutes
C: 4 minutes
D: 5 minutes
445: To serve as a person in charge of transfer operations on
board a self-propelled tank vessel, an individual must
_________________.
A: hold a valid officer's license for inspected vessels
B: be a certificated tankerman
C: be 30 years old
D: have a letter from the company stating his qualification
446: The number of fire axes required to be carried on a cargo
vessel of 14,000 GT and on an international voyage is
______.
447: According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone
Act", what is NOT required in the radiotelephone log?
A: Distress and alarm signals transmitted or intercepted
B: Times of beginning and end of watch period
C: Routine navigational traffic
D: